scholars generally understand the prophets Isaiah and Jeremiah to have been historical figures that lived during the times they were purported to. the books that bear their names were generally considered to have been legitimately composed by them. (First Isaiah that is, Ch 1-39.) At least this is what im led to believe.
Now both pre-exilic books mention the 70 year period of babylonish supremacy. (Is 23; Je 25,29) how is this apparently prophetic statement understood by scholars?
thx
mox