Well it started with one and sort of developed from there.. Firstly, Mary was a virgin when she miraculously conceived Jesus, so does that mean then that he was illegetimate, and if so then why did Jehovah not simply allow her to marry Joseph, send an angel to Joseph to advise him to abstain from sexual intercourse until after the birth of Jesus? After all Joseph was the only one who could testify at that time that Mary was a virgin, he could have easily have done that even if they had been married. The fact that she was a virgin would not have been obvious until the birth when it could be proved that her hymen was intact. Jehovah is supposed to highly esteem the sanctity of marriage so why did he go about the birth of his most precious son in this manner? Think I will start another topic with regard to my next question. Be interested in hearing your comments on this.
Thanks
Tez