Does Rev 1:1 and Rev 20:4-6 and Rev 22:4-6 prove Jesus is an "angel"?

by booker-t 4 Replies latest jw friends

  • booker-t
    booker-t

    I was just reading some things about Jesus one day on the internet and I came across an argument that Jesus is an angel. Because in Rev 1:1 it talks about a revelation that God gave him to show "his slaves" of the things to come. Then if you cross reference it with Rev 20:4-6 and Rev 22:4-6 it talks about an "angel" showing his "slaves" of the things to come. I almost fell out of my chair because this backs up the JW's when they insist that Jesus is Michael the Arch-Angel. Any comments on this posters?

  • yucca
    yucca

    in rev 22:16 I Jesus have sent my angel to testify to you these things in the churches"I am the root and the offspring of David," the bright and Morning star.

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia

    1) In 1:1a, God (ho theos, nominative) gave the revelation to Jesus (autó, dative) with the intention of "showing it to the servants" (deixai tois doulois), and in 1:1b "he" (either God or Jesus) made the revelation known by sending it through his angel (dia tou aggelou autou, genitive) "to his servant (douló, dative)" John. The reference in the verb esémanen "he made it known" is ambiguous. If the reference is to God (the more grammatically natural possibility, since "God" is nominative in the preceding clause), then one could attempt to construe the aggelos as referring to Jesus but this is ruled out by the next verse (v. 2) which states that the angel bore witness (emarturésen) to both "the word of God and the testimony of Jesus" in addition to "the things that he saw (hosa eiden)," thereby distinguishing the angel from Jesus. If "God" is the subject for esémanen, then the idea is that God gave the revelation to Jesus for him to show to the servants and Jesus accomplished this "through" (dia) an intermediary angel who personally delivered the testimony to John. On the other hand, the subject can be "Jesus" since v. 1a previously described the giving of the revelation to Jesus and v. 1b would logically describe what Jesus did next with the revelation, i.e. making it known by sending it through an angel (cf. the parallel of esémanen + dia "through [an agent]" in Acts 11:28, where Agabus made his prophecy known "through the Spirit" [esémanen dia tou pneumatos]). In this case, conflating the angel with Jesus would be impossible.

    2) Revelation 22:16 fills in what is implicit in 1:1b, that "I, Jesus have sent (epempsa) my angel to bear witness (marturésai) to the churches". Note that as in 1:2 it is the angel that bears witness, and this angel is distinguished from Jesus (note also how the aggelou mou "my angel" in this verse corresponds to the aggelou autou "his angel" in 1:1b, suggesting again that Jesus is the subject of esémanen). So God is described as giving the revelation to Jesus and Jesus makes it known by sending his angel to John. As for 22:6, this verse relates "the Lord, the God of the spirits and prophets" as sending "the angel," the same action attributed to Jesus in v. 16. If anything, this is more condusive to a conflation of Jesus with God rather than with the angel (cf. the application of "First and the Last" and "Alpha and Omega" language to both Jesus and God in ch. 1 and 22).

  • Amazing
    Amazing

    Leolaia,

    Excellent commentary and very well stated. Further, the "Angel" in Rev. 19:9,10 says:

    "[9] And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God. [10] And I fell at his feet to worship (proskuneo) him. And he said unto me, See thou do it not: I am thy fellowservant, and of thy brethren that have the testimony of Jesus: worship (proskuneo) God: for the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy."

    Jesus Christ never refused an act of worship (proskuneo) given to him. Some, who agree with the JWs, argue that "proskuneo" was given to human kings and dignitaries, and is a 'relative' form of worship. While this would explain the willingness of the Apostle John to bow down and give "proskuneo" to the Angel, the very fact that the Angel rebuked John and deferred "proskuneo" to God alone is a marked change in the way Christians were to worship . Clearly, the Angel in this verse distinguished himself from Jesus Christ as the Lamb of God ... and this verse likewise supports your points.

    Thanks,

    Jim Whitney

  • Star Moore
    Star Moore

    Hi there:

    Rev. 1:1 A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God gave him, to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place, And he sent forth his angel and presented it in signs through him to his slave John..

    Ahh, I see what you mean..wow.. God sent forth his angel..Jesus? interesting..

    Rev. 20: 4-6 ( I don't see anything there about an angel)

    Rev. 22: 4-6 .......Jehovah the God of the inspired expressions of the prophets sent his angel forth to show his slave the things that must shortly take place.

    Same thing..sounds like Jesus could be the angel..

    Good Find!!!!!

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