Acts or Gospels? Who is Right?

sammielee24

In the bible Paul takes issue with Peter regarding his hypocrisy - his objection eating with Gentiles. Surely Peter would have remembered Jesus doing this. Jesus last words were to basically go preach to the world - which would be Gentiles. Well, no sooner than we go to Acts and Peter needs a revelation from Jesus that its okay to preach to Gentiles. Either the Gospels are wrong or Acts are wrong - or are they both wrong?

Brother Apostate

Both. Read between the lines. In context. Reading comprehension.

jaguarbass

Your problem may be that your trying to make sense out of nonsense. You might want to google for some information on the reliability and history of the bible.

greendawn

The loathing of the Jews for the gentiles was so strong that Peter had to be prompted to overcome his prejudice and deal with a gentile in an intimate religious way. Deep down he knew the gentiles were to become part of what was a jewish religion but it was too revolutionary to stomach.

avidbiblereader

Or it could be absolute truth and was trying to hide nothing and said it as it happened,

Quite different than religions and their literture trying to hide how and why it happened in an effort to glorify them and their associates

abr

zack

When did Jesus eat with Gentiles? I don't recall this. What I remember is he cured the loved ones of Gentiles. When Jesus came to one man's house, the man went out to meet him saying, "I am not fit for you to be under my roof." He knowing the Jews aversion to Gentiles. Jesus still perfofrmed, though. But I don't think he took a meal.

New Worldly Translation

Jesus' raison d'etre was to preach to jews only

"Go nowhere among the Gentiles, and enter no town of the Samaritans, but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Matthew 10:5,6)

"I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Matthew 15:24)

"It is not fair to take the children's bread and throw it to the dogs." (Matthew 15:26) - Talking about gentiles

"Today salvation has come to this house, since he also is a son of Abraham. For the Son of Man came to seek and to save the lost." (Luke 19:9,10)

Jesus ministry never extended into gentile lands and the decision to preach to gentiles was only later taken after Peter had his revelation. Jesus 'world' was the jewish world; the children of Israel. The story of the roman centurion in Matthew is more than likely a later interpolation considering the rest of the context of Matthew, it's negative attitude towards non-jews and other interpolations in the gospels meant to appease the roman authorities.
The scripture in Matthew is where Jesus says preach to all nations is regarded as a later amendment by the early church fathers. This is obvious considering the ministry never extended to gentiles in Jesus' lifetime and also when Peter decided it was ok to preach to gentiles some years later it caused a furious controversy.

Leolaia

NWT...It depends on which gospel you read. Matthew incorporates a sizeable corpus that limits the mission to the Jews (10:5, 6, 15:24, 26), but in the end affirms an eventual Gentile mission (28:19). John, on the other hand, has Jesus entering into Samaritan towns, converting Samaritans to the faith, and regarding the Gentiles as already part of his flock (4:1-42, 10:16).

sammielee24

Thanks all. I went from being a witness who was taught to believe that the bible was factual and simple to one who believes little and questions all. Sometimes I just ponder these things............

Acts or Gospels? Who is Right?

Share this