our new D.O. had a new to me explanation of something i've questioned about matt 24:45-47. i, along with some here, wondered why the "slave" in matthew is singular when the WTBTS says it has to be a "class" because no one person could live long enough to be the slave. personally, i've wondered why it couldn't be each person individually, but the D.O. says there is precedent. isa43:10 says of the nation of isreal, "you are my witnesses(plural) and then calls them "my servant"(singular), thereby justifying the singlar "slave" being a class of more than one person. just wondering what you guys think of that reasoning.
also, i have a friend that is an elder who is used quite lot on the circuit and district level that i have interesing conversations with that neither he nor i would tell any other JW about. we have discussed the validity of 144.000 being literal, the Sealing done by around 1935(which has since been changed which we both thought had to happen) and other controversial things. his son is at WT farm and went to the annual meeting and told his dad of the "new light " regarding who the generation refered to. i told him i already heard which i had to improv cause i couldn't tell him that i read it here.he thought it made sense. i then asked him the scriptural meaning behind "new light". he looked at me funny and said "proverbs". i said that didn't talk about new light. it refers to the existing light getting brighter. what we have is an old light going out and being replaced over and over. there is no scripture that mentions that. i also told him that if a certain brand of light keeps having to replaced, eventually you change brands. he sort of grunted agreement. i also asked why we dont stop trying to interpret everything and just focus on the TWO MOST important commands from jesus(which by the way, didn't include preaching, which is always refered to as the most important work going on in the world)