Ptolemy's "Canon" unreliable .

by hamsterbait 7 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • hamsterbait
    hamsterbait

    The "Canon" of Ptolemy cannot be used to reconstruct Babylonian succession. This is because it is an ASTRONOMICAL treatise.

    It does not even pretend to be a History of the Babylonian Kings list.

    Ptolemy compiled his information to back up the (at that time) astonishing accuracy with which astronomical events could be predicted and traced using his model of the solar system expounded in the Almagest.

    So if no notable event happened in the reign of a particular king, he is not mentioned.

    However events which could be traced to a date and time, are mentioned, and the King ruling at the time named. This would facilitate tracing the records made by the Babylonians who were expert observers of celestial phenomena.

    The Egyptian historical records also show 587 as the date of Jerusalem being sacked. Their records also confirm that the land was too valuable for agriculture, as trading of goods continued with the region throughout the "desolation" alleged by the WT Babble and Trash. The Babylonians also record figs, dates and other foods being brought from Judah.

    The fact that the Witchtower tries to discredit the Babylonian chronicles by naming Ptolemy and omitting all mention of the Egibi records,shows a cheap school debating team type of argument that does not hold up to scrutiny.

    If Freddie "FOOL" Franz had not dropped out of University, maybe he would have learned the value of honest argument. The fact the writers or the WTBTS are prepared to deceive its dupes in this way shows they are the last people you should trust as Christs Annointed.

    I found all this out, and so can anybody else.

    HB

  • dogisgod
    dogisgod

    Wasn't Ptolemy Cleopatra's father? (they were Greek I believe)

  • deaconbluez
    deaconbluez

    The Ptolemaic king list is greatly supported by scholars.

    Plus, the Watchtower has used it in their calculation of kingly rulership. They just conveniently don't reference it in conjunction with Jerusalem's destruction.

  • whereami
    whereami

    Yeah..but.. but.. not according to these guys. http://www.jehovahs-witness.com/6/153634/1.ashx

  • scholar
    scholar

    hamsterbait

    Sadly, Ptolemy's Canon is very unreliable and is useless for the purposes of accurate Bible chronology for even one of its greatest supporters the esteemed chronologist Edwin W Thiele admitted that it was prepares for astronomical and not for historical purposes. In fact, the king list for the Babylonians is at least twenty years too short giving a false and misleading date for the Fall of Jerusalem in 586 or 587 BCE rather than the biblical date of 607 BCE.

    Along with the Egibi documents such secular records omit important historical facts such as the missing seven years of Nebuchadnezzer' reign and the fact that the biblical seventy years that began during Nebuchadnezzer's reign proves that the Neo- Babylonian chronology is at least twenty years too short. It is far wiser to accept the Bible as the authority rather than the opinions of apostates and higher critics who have not interest in upholding the integrity of the Bible.

    scholar JW

  • JCanon
    JCanon

    The bottom line on Ptolemy is that his records were post Seleucid references so they are not relevant. Xenophon revised the Greek timeline by 58 years at the behest of the Persians who were trying to introduce enough time to cover their own additions. Xerxes and Artaxerxes were the same king and Artaxerxes claimed his entire 41-year rule. This was contradicted when Thucydides wrote his history of the Peloponnesian War. The Persians, who had manipulated Greek history before (i.e. Herodotus wrote about the PERSIAN wars, remember?), used Xenophon to manipulate Thucycides. Check it out. Xenophon is even considered the later "publisher of Thucydides" and the redactions are very apparent and simple, thus: He simply added the standard 30 years to a period between the Persian and PPW, and moved an eclipse occurring in the 1st year of the Olympic cycle back from 402 BCE to 431 BCE. That added 58 years to the timeline. The 50-year interval between the wars though initially dated Xerxes invasion to 482 BCE. That is 481 plus 51 is 482. Because it was well established this invasion took place in an Olympic year it got adjusted down 2 years to 480 BCE where it is now, resulting in a 56-year net distortion.

    This is no longer hard to confirm since the eclipse mentioned matchs the 402 BCE eclipse not the 431 BCE eclipse, and it caused way too many loose ends, such as "The Delian Problem" where Plato was famous for having been involved with trying to solve this famous match problem of doubling the size of a cube. He was approached at the beginning of the war to solve the problem in order to stop the plague that was raging. You can look it up: "The Delian Problem" The REAL problem is that with the revised timeline the war begins in 431 BCE and Plato isn't born until 428 BCE, so he was being consulted 3 years before he wsa born! Oops! When the beginning of the PPW is adjusted per the 402 BCE eclipse then Plato is 25 years old. Much better.

    But having noted that, any and all astronomical texts reflecting this last adjustment by Xenophon are totally fake. The original astronomical texts were destroyed during the Seleucid Period and all kinds of "target records" that reflected the old chronology were destroyed or revised like the Egibi records. Therefore, Ptolemy doesn't even get to be part of the main focus of any astronomical dating issue because it is no more pertinent than the VAT4956 which indeed dates year 37 of Nebuchadnezzar to 568 BCE, but as the WTS clearly notes, it is not an original text but a "copy" from the Seleucid Era. Of course, the only reason to "copy" an astronomical text is to redate some king's rule. Fortunately, the VAT4956 also contained two cryptic references to the original chronology in Lines 3 and 14 for year 37 of Nebuchadnezzar in 511 BCE. So far NOBODY wants to address why two 511 BCE references are found in this "diary" -- perhaps because it is too obvious -- they were hidden there as a secret reference to the revised chronology.

    So at this point, it is not 568 BCE that is of concern for Biblical students for year 37 of Nebuchadnezzar, but the more pertinent 511 BCE hidden reference. When that comparison is made, however, all is well. That's because:

    1) Josephus clearly establishes a desolation of Jerusalem and Judea with the last deportation in Ant. 11.1.1, meaning year 23 of Nebuchadnezzar is exactly 70 years from the 1st of Cyrus. If 511 BCE was the original date for year 37 of Nebuchadnezzar, then 525 BCE is year 23, and 70 years later is 455 BCE. 455 BCE is the critical beginning of the 70 weeks prophecy that has to be fulfilled by some scenario of the rebuilding of Jersualem. No problem assigning this to the 1st of Cyrus, as some had done anyway.

    2) As above, the 70 weeks prophecy had always pointed to Cyrus as beginning this prophecy so some, like Martin Anstey, had always rejected the Greek timeline and established the Biblical timeline for the 1st of Cyrus to 455 BCE. Only now, we can use the VAT4956 to prove not only the conspiracy to revise the astronomical texts, but as proof that the original dating was 511 BCE.

    So Ptolemy's references only reflect the revisions of the Seleucid Period and not the original texts.

    So ultimately, because Ptolemy only is a "hearsay" reflection of the revised documents from the Seleucid Period, he's not a direct reference of significance as far as the chronology is concerned. That is, we have the VAT4956 as a more direct reference.

    PTOLEMY STILL A GOOD BACKGROUND REFERENCE FOR SK400: However, I will note that Ptolemy does serve as a good reference to what is in the texts. Most pertinent is the SK400 where a double eclipse occurs during the 7th year of Kambyses. The specific time of the eclipse is given by Ptolemy as one hour before midnight. The text itself gives the time of the first eclipse as 3:20 after "night", but that division of the night is not apparent. That is, is it 20 minutes after sunset, 30 minutes after sunset? Ptolemy confirms that division of the night is 32 minutes! That's because when sunset occurs at 7:09 p.m. and we add the 3 hours and 20 minutes we get 10:29. In order to arrive at 11:00 p.m., "one hour before midnight" we need to add 31 minutes. Everything is rounded to the nearest 4 minutes, so 32 minutes!!

    PTOLEMY IGNORED WHEN CONVENIENT: Finally, one thing that strikes me in particular as hypocrical, is that Ptolemy is touted as a reliable reference for the Babylonian timeline, but in particular this very specific eclipse that must occur "one hour before midnight" in 523 BCE, year 7 of Kambyses as mentioned by Ptolemy is IGNORED! This is a specific to-the-minute time for an eclipse that should help astronomy programs to adjust the geosolar dynamics for this specific time period. But they don't. If you check the canon this eclipse occurs 57 minutes too early for "one hour before midnight." So what gives?

    For this and other reasons, the astronomy issues are a huge mess.

    Finally, the reference of Ptolemy is completely outdated as far as what we know now. Professor Robert Newton called Ptolemy the "greatest fraud in ancient history." He completely dismisses what he found. BUT, he considered the NB Period as redeemable because of two texts apart from Ptolemy. One dated to year 7 of Kambyses and the other to year 37 of Nebuchadnezzar. That's right! The SK400 and the VAT4956 are the two specific diaries mentioned by Newton as helping to establish the NB timeline apart from Ptolemy. What Newton didn't know is that BOTH the VAT4956 and the SK400 contain "errors"!!! Errors noted by everybody studying the texts. What we have recently found out is that in both cases, the "errors" rematch to the original timeline for Nebuchadnezzar. The Sk400 points to 541 for "year 7" and the VAT4956, as mentioned, to 511 BCE for year 37.

    So we at this point are WAY PAST Ptolemy and the fake NB timeline which we know Xenophon revised, and we can reset the NB timeline by three corrected astronomical references to what it was before, where Cyrus' 1st year falls in 455 BCE.

    NOW, this is NOT UP FOR DEBATE any more. Anybody can check out the information on Xenophon's revisions of Thucydides, anybody can try to confirm that Xerxes and Artaxerxes were or were not the same king. Regardless, the Bible can be interpreted as dating the 1st of Cyrus to 455 BCE and the alternative reading from the VAT4956 agrees totally. Now the corrected timeline has RC14 confirmation for the time of Shishak's invasion which the 455 BCE chronology dates to 871 BCE. So those sticking to the 587 BCE chronology are just out of date or stubborn but certainly incompetent.

    What is different here is not the CHOICE to go with secular vs Bible, but that there is an alternative SECULAR timeline that agrees with the 455 BCE Biblical chronology. You know? It's whether or not Xenophon did or did not add 58 fake years to the Greek timeline!! You have to prove he didn't, which you can't, because he actually did. Once that is established and the extra 58 years are removed then the 586 BCE Babyonian fall of Jerusalem timeline collapses with the Greek timeline. A chain is only as strong as its weakest link the the weak link in the timeline are the Greek historians. At least now, though, we can PRACTICALLY adjust the Greek timeline in line with 455 BCE the 1st of Cyrus, and also correct the NB timeline as well, which is 26 years shorter than the Biblical and Josephus timelines, also revised by the Persians to add more years to the Persian kings.

    Ptolemy is interesting, a good source of what the revisions were but not pertinent in the least as far as original Babylonian timeline. Our best reference to that is the VAT4956's 511 BCE cryptic references, and the Bible, of course, which dates the 1st of Cyrus to 455 BCE.

    JCanon

  • JCanon
    JCanon

    Hi hamsterbait: You note:

    The Egyptian historical records also show 587 as the date of Jerusalem being sacked. Their records also confirm that the land was too valuable for agriculture, as trading of goods continued with the region throughout the "desolation" alleged by the WT Babble and Trash. The Babylonians also record figs, dates and other foods being brought from Judah.

    Would you mind being more specific? Archaeologists have also claimed there was a continued occupation of some cities after Jerusalem was destroyed and thus the land was not left totally desolate. The Bible says it was and so does Josephus.

    Archaeologically, we have proof from Ashkelon, one of the cities specifically mentioned as drinking the cup of Nebuchadnezzar as being desolated for 70-80 years ending in the Persian Period!!! So at least one city is confirmed by archaeology not to have continued habitation. Archaeologists on the other hand can only guess to a certain extent based on what they find what actually happened. You know, if some people left for 70 years and then used the same pottery they were using 70 years ago, an archaeologist would presume a continuous, uninterrpted period, which isn't necessarily the case. So it is subjective.

    However, it is an interesting point of reference as far as the Biblical story. Thus if you have a more SPECIFIC reference as to confirming the land was still occupied after year 23 of Nebuchadnezzar, I would like to discuss it, otherwise, it may not really be absolute proof the Bible is incorrect about the desolation for 70 years.

    Fortunately, thanks to the VAT4956's references to 511 BCE, we can correct both the RELATIVE as well as the ABSOLUTE chronology. That is, Josephus dates the 70 years from the last deportation, year 23. That means there are 70 years from the 1st of Cyrus back to year 23 of Nebuchadnezzar. If year 37 falls in 511 BCE per the VAT4956, then year 23 falls in 525 BCE. 70 years later in 455 BCE. Funny to me an ancient though cryptic astronomical text reflects the Bible's own chronology for the reign of Nebuchadnezzar! But no big surprise, the pagans revised their chronology all the time. In fact, the end chronology we get is only what the revisionists leave us, right?

    It would be interesting, however, to really see specifically what there is, archaeologically or based on records that there were still people in the region of Judea during the period of time it was supposed to be desolated for 70 years. Now I do know some references might note that some people were left in the land after Jerusalem was destroyed, but the Bible confirms that! The critical text here would not thus be that reference, but whether or not there is a reference of continued occupation after year 23.

    IN the context of the WTS, indeed I think this reference is used to confirm some people were still in the land immediately after the fall of Jerusalem. But the WTS is incorrect to start the 70-year desolation the same year. Josephus starts it with the last deportation, which was from Judea. Jeremiah likewise notes those who ran down to Egypt would return to Jerusalem, if only for a few months (Jer 44:14,28).

    So YES, definitely the WTS is wrong about the 70 years beginning the same year Jerusalem was destroyed. And a reference noting some being left in the land after the destruction would contradict that false and non-Biblical reference. But it would not necessarily contradict the Bible or Josephus which both begin the 70-year desolation in the 23rd year.

    As far as the idea of valuable agriculture, etc. Again, this was precisely the reason for leaving the "poor people" in the land to continue the crops originally. So without more specific information, I see no contradiction with the Bible for that reference for that intent.

    But again, we at least have one city with clear-cut archaeological findings, Ashkelon, that definitely was desolated for 70-80 years.

    Since I'm asking for a specific reference, I'll do the same. Here is the excerpt from BAR on Ashkelon:

    One thing is clear: this large, sophisticated Philistine metropolis of the late seventh century B.C.E. was thoroughly destroyed. The destruction of Philistine Ashkelon was complete and final. The Iron Age, in archaeological terms, had ended.

    Archaeology cannot be so precise as to date the destruction of Ashkelon to 604 B.C.E., but the Babylonian Chronicle leaves little doubt that the late seventh-century destruction we found all over the site, followed by a 75- to 80-year gap in occupation until the Persian Period, was the work of Nebuchadrezzar in 604 B.C.E.

    BAR 22:01, Jan/Feb 1996

    Thanks for your reference.

    BUT I'll again note in passing. Everything will fall not on the revised tests from the NB Period but on whether or not it can be proven that Xenophon was hired by the Persians to revise Greek history. When he added the 58 years it obviously caused lots of problems. Many of those problems are where people are doing things before they were born. Or in the case of one student of Archytas, the student dying before Archytas was born! This is what happens when you expand the timeline that greatly. When you remove those years, though, then these lives overlap and we understand the contextual reference that these people knew each other, etc. I have a whole list of contradictions all pointing to an unorthodox expansion of the Greek Period.

    Further, Xenophon is clearly the culprit agent here, but he enlists the help of Plato, Aristotle and Plato's students to help with the revisionism. It's quite clever. Ever wonder why Xenophon and Plato are the primary publishers of Socrates' dialogues. How nice of them, we think at first until we realize Socrates, who moved back in time with the PPW had to be edited! So immediately Plato is implicated in the conspiracy as well. But why not? They were admirers of Themistocles to upon fleeing to Greece decided to remain there and live the life of a rich man. Athens was always ostracizing every one of their great heros so they often flip-flopped in their loyalties. Persia was playing politics as well, so it was not a stretch to sell out. In the case of Xenophon who was sympathetic to Sparta, his revising the timeline could have been in part in exchange for monetary support from Persia for the Spartans whom the Persians were playing against the Athenians.

    In the meantime, now that we've discovered that Xerxes and Artaxerxes were the same king, YOU would be hard pressed to explain why "Artaxerxes" is buried between Darius I and Darius II at Naqshi-Rustam. Of course, obviously, this IS "Xerxes" only he had adopted a new title when he became king like all the other kings. And guess what?

    Along with your promotion of the Egibi texts you need to consider this one below. It's dated year 38 of a king "Arses also known as Artaxerxes":

    Unfortunately comparison with the dating formulae of the Astronomical Diaries does not help very much. In these formulae the name of the father of the reigning king is never mentioned. The formula used here is: PN ša PN2 (LUGAL) MU-šú na-bu-ú, "PN, who is called king PN2." See for example AD I, p. 152, no. -346, left edge: MU 12.KAM mÚ-ma-kuš šá mÁr-tak-šat-su LUGAL MU-šú na-bu-ú, "year 12 of Ochos, who is called king Artaxerxes (III)"; MU 38.KAM mÁr-šú LUGAL šá mÁr-tak-šat-su LUGAL MU-šú [na-bu-ú], "year 38 of king Arses, who is called king Artaxerxes (II)" (AD I, p. 136, no. -366 B lower edge; on tablet A left edge the title LUGAL, "king," added to both names, has been omitted in both cases); mÚ-ma-kuš šá mDa-a-ri-muš MU-šú SA 4, "Ochos, who is called Darius (II)" (AD I, p. 66, no. -391 B obv. 1).

    What king called "Arses" is also "Artaxerxes" who ruled up to year 38? This proves that Xerxes (Arses) and Artaxerxes were, indeed, the same king as the Bible claims.

    You also have the issue of the faces chiseled off the images at Persepolis which sports all three kings, Darius, Xerxes and Artaxerxes. You cannot distinguish Xerxes from Artaxerxes, but Artaxerxes did have this famous longer right hand! In that regard, XERXES changes his right hand position from holding onto the back of the throne, suggesting he's a co-ruler, "sharing" the throne, to vertically in a meaningless gesture. IF this is the famous longer right hand of "Artaxerxes, LONGIMANUS" then it would explain the change in hand posture!! It is at least very strong circumstantial evidence that Xerxes was already famous for this longer right hand, which became his trademark as "Artaxerxes, Longimanus." Check it out:

    http://www.geocities.com/siaxares/xerxeshand.html (Xerxes hand position)

    So the bottom line NOW is, there is plenty of evidence showing Xerxes and Artaxerxes were the same king, right in line with the Bible, we have more than enough basis for linking Xenophon with additions to the Greek timeline, and the VAT4956 alternatively dates year 37 of Nebuchadnezzar to both 568 and 511 BCE, the significance of the 511 BCE dating being that it creates a relative 70-year interval between the last deportation in year 23 and the first of Cyrus, and an absolute dating as well dating the 1st of Cyrus to 455 BCE as the Bible requires. So unless you can explain why Artaxerxes is buried between Darius I and Darius II, or why Plato is being consulted in 431 BCE when he wasn't born until 428 BCE, all your focus on the revised Babylonian texts, Ptolemy and any other non-contemporary Babylonian reference is not relevant any more. Plus now we have RC14 dating confirmation for a lower date for Solomon and David and Shishak!!! You can't beat it. Like I said, EVENTUALLY the scholars will come around, they have no choice. But in the meantime it's just incompetent to still date the fall of Jerusalem in 587 BCE. There is too much to ignore from the Greek and Persian Periods relating to revisionism. Sorry. In the meantime, the VAT4956, coming from the Seleucid Era, was always a dismissible text anyway. It just so happens it was designed to actually "hide in plain sight" the original 511 BCE dating that had been revised.

    Thanks, so much, if you have that reference about "continued" occupation, versus simply immediately after the fall of Jerusalem, which is perfectly consistent with the Bible, though not JW teaching.

    JC

  • WTWizard
    WTWizard

    Well, that is just one more nail in the Watchtower Society's coffin. They don't know their facts--I think they just make them up to confuse people into believing whatever crap they want them to.

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