"Until he arrives"

by sinis 6 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • sinis
    sinis

    Jesus, in Luke is addressing the apostles and telling THEM to keep performing the ritual while they are still ALIVE. Jesus mentions NOTHING about others outside of this scope to participate in the covenant.

    Luke 22:19-23 says, "Also, he took a loaf, gave thanks, broke it, and gave it to them, saying: ?This means my body which is to be given in YOUR behalf. Keep doing this in remembrance of me.? Also, the cup in the same way after they had the evening meal, he saying: ?This cup means the new covenant by virtue of my blood, which is to be poured out in YOUR behalf."

    It is not until Paul speaks in 1 Cor:

    For as often as you eat this loaf and drink this cup, you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, until he arrives.

    that the idea of EVERYONE partaking takes hold. Hmmm, who are we to believe, Paul or the "Son of God"?

    Jesus had already come into the kingdom at Pentecost, and by the end of the first century the original twelve were already dead. I simply do not see anything outside of his words within the Gospels that opens up the "kingdom" to others outside the original scope, nor the need for others to partake. This whole concept is Pauline, and suspect to fraud. Thoughts?

  • R.Crusoe
    R.Crusoe

    Ther are generations of people who have lived for thousands of years and never heard of Bible scriptures!

    God knows this!

    What are their lives about?

    Are they really less fulfilled than Bible students?

    I say not!!

  • JosephMalik
    JosephMalik

    It is not until Paul speaks in 1 Cor:

    For as often as you eat this loaf and drink this cup, you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, until he arrives.

    Sinus,

    No it wasn’t. Jesus taught Jews in the synagogue that this was now an absolute truth: John 6:53 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you. 54 Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day. 55 For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed. 56 He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him.57 As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me. 58 This is that bread which came down from heaven: not as your fathers did eat manna, and are dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live for ever. 59 These things said he in the synagogue, as he taught in Capernaum.

    So I believe that both Jesus and Paul were in agreement on this teaching. It is the WTS that teaches a fraud when they twist this truth to prevent Watchtower witnesses from partaking and thus keep themselves in authority over their witnesses

    Joseph

  • Mary
    Mary
    Luke 22:19-23 says, "Also, he took a loaf, gave thanks, broke it, and gave it to them, saying: ?This means my body which is to be given in YOUR behalf. Keep doing this in remembrance of me.? Also, the cup in the same way after they had the evening meal, he saying: ?This cup means the new covenant by virtue of my blood, which is to be poured out in YOUR behalf."

    It is not until Paul speaks in 1 Cor:

    For as often as you eat this loaf and drink this cup, you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, until he arrives.

    that the idea of EVERYONE partaking takes hold. Hmmm, who are we to believe, Paul or the "Son of God"? Jesus had already come into the kingdom at Pentecost, and by the end of the first century the original twelve were already dead. I simply do not see anything outside of his words within the Gospels that opens up the "kingdom" to others outside the original scope, nor the need for others to partake. This whole concept is Pauline, and suspect to fraud. Thoughts?

    While I agree that there is much in the NT that is Pauline in it's origin, I don't think this is one of them. The scripture you quoted above quotes Jesus as saying that his body "is to be given in your behalf." The question then would be: Did Jesus die only for his apostles or for the world?

    John 3:16 indicates that he died for all mankind and that eternal life is for all those who believe in him----not just the apostles. I would assert that after his death, the apostles would have continued this tradition with the newly converted.

    This is probably a good question for Leolaia to answer!

  • R.Crusoe
    R.Crusoe

    I say Jesus referred to the life within!

    To eat its flesh!

    To drink its blood!

    To live from within yourself!

    The life given you and noone else!

    To love life and reject death!

    That is what I say Jesus was!

  • JosephMalik
    JosephMalik

    R Caruso,

    You are talking about something else. They would be considered people of the Nations that will also have an opportunity to wash their robes in the blood of Christ and learn the truth. They however do not have the assurances that our Lord's disciples that partake of Him have. Such people only had to be decent human beings and did not even have to know scripture or be a follower of Him.

    Joseph

  • bobld
    bobld

    My angle on this:John 3:16 For God love the world.......................gave his Son.......everyone not destroyed but have everlasting life(never coming to an end)."

    1.If this is true,why do people die?Since Jesus gave his life for what Adam lost per wbts.

    2.The Jews are right Jesus and/or the Messiah didn't come yet.

    3.The R.C. are right, people have everlasting life but it's in heaven.

    Bob

Share this

Google+
Pinterest
Reddit