Did Jesus' (and the apostles) names originally just consist of consonants? Was it translated with Tetragrammen (sp?) like they did to YHWH/Jehovah? I have no problem if the witnesses want to say "jehovah", but my nerves are grated when they insist that's one of the reasons they are the true religion.
2 Part Question:
by AwSnap 4 Replies latest watchtower beliefs
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SixofNine
Just to make your head explode, from the Catholic Encyclopedia:
Jesus
The word Jesus is the Latin form of the Greek Iesous, which in turn is the transliteration of the HebrewJeshua, or Joshua, or again Jehoshua, meaning "Jehovah is salvation." Though the name in one form or another occurs frequently in the Old Testament, it was not borne by a person of prominence between the time of Josue, the son of Nun and Josue, the high priest in the days of Zorobabel. It was also the name of the author of Ecclesiaticus, of one of Christ's ancestors mentioned in the genealogy, found in the Third Gospel (Luke 3:29), and one of the St. Paul's companions (Colossians 4:11). During the Hellenizing period, Jason, a purely Greek analogon of Jesus, appears to have been adopted by many (1 Maccabees 8:17; 12:16; 14:22; 2 Maccabees 1:7; 2:24; 4:7-26; 5:5-10; Acts 17:5-9; Romans 16:21). The Greek name is connected with verb iasthai, to heal; it is therefore, not surprising that some of the GreekFathers allied the word Jesus with same root (Eusebius, "Dem. Ev.", IV; cf. Acts 9:34; 10:38). Though about the time of Christ the name Jesus appears to have been fairly common (Josephus, "Ant.", XV, ix, 2; XVII, xiii, 1; XX, ix, 1; "Bel. Jud.", III, ix, 7; IV, iii, 9; VI, v, 5; "Vit.", 22) it was imposed on our Lord by God's express order (Luke 1:31; Matthew 1:21), to foreshow that the Child was destined to "save his people from their sins." Philo ("De Mutt. Nom.", 21) is therefore, right when he explains Iesous as meaning soteria kyrion; Eusebius (Dem., Ev., IV, ad fin.; P.G., XXII, 333) gives the meaning Theou soterion; while St. Cyril of Jerusalem interprets the word as equivalent to soter (Catechetical Lectures X.13). This last writer, however, appears to agree with Clement of Alexandria in considering the word Iesous as of Greek origin (The Pedagogue III.12); St. Chrysostom emphasizes again the Hebrew derivation of the word and its meaning soter (Homily 2 on Matthew, No. 2), thus agreeing with the exegesis of the angel speaking to St. Joseph (Matthew 1:21).
Nothing is ever easy, is it?
I believe that someday, a child will be born to us, born of the twin Gods Narkissos and Leolaia, and His name shall be called Jehomah. Jehomah Williams to be precise (from late c20th Ebonics and middle American). This child shall be with us always, or at least whenever we need a ready reply to JW propoganda: "that is partially true, but the original language of that scripture was Aramaic, so therefore you lose and the bible is rubish...." (that sort of thing).
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AwSnap
I'm afraid I do not understand , except this part:
I believe that someday, a child will be born to us, born of the twin Gods Narkissos and Leolaia, and His name shall be called Jehomah. Jehomah Williams to be precise (from late c20th Ebonics and middle American). This child shall be with us always, or at least whenever we need a ready reply to JW propoganda: "that is partially true, but the original language of that scripture was Aramaic, so therefore you lose and the bible is rubish...." (that sort of thing).
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LockedChaos
Those two twin gods post here
Narkissos & Leolaia
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Billy the Ex-Bethelite
AwSnap, According to Wikipedia, Niqqud didn't come along until hundreds of years later. Evidently, only consonants would have been used in Hebrew.
Koine Greek of the time, however, did have vowels.
Obviously, the Greek language used by Zeus on Mount Olympus was vastly superior to the clunky Hebrew used by HWHY in the temple of Jerusalem.
Oh, and Hebrew was written backwards. Pretty crazy for a "perfect" language.