When the NT references the "word of God" what is it referring to?

WalkTall

The NT references the 'word of God' in a number of places. (for example: Hebrews 4:12-the word of God is alive and exerts power and is sharper than a two-edged sword). It can't be referring to the OT and the Mosaic Law because those authors writing after Jesus's death were trying to put away the old law traditions, and it can't be referring to any of the NT books because many were not even written yet or known to be scripture per se. The WT always uses scriptures that say 'word of God' to mean the moderny day Bible, but what was meant by this phrase at that time?

Thanks.

EndofMysteries

You may wanna compare Rev 19:11-16, Rev 2:12-13, Rev 1:12-16

leavingwt

"All Scripture is inspired" <-------- What was Paul referring to?

PSacramento

The word of God is Jesus (and Jesus's teachings), everythign else was written ABOUT the word of God.

blondie

But didn't the writers of the NT quote from the OT after the Christian congregation had been established.

http://www.theology.edu/b310.htm

Mad Sweeney

I'm with PSac. In the NT, the Word of God is Jesus Christ himself.

"The word of God is alive and exerts power..." Jesus.

As for Paul's "All Scripture" quote, I don't think there is any record of what the 1st century Christians considered to be true Scripture and what wasn't. I think a good guess would be that they would have accepted much of what we now consider the Old Testament, if not all of it, in addition to probably several lost or 'apocryphal' books, too. I don't think there's any way of knowing.

Frankly, there's no way of knowing that Paul actually ever wrote those words, since his original letters do not exist.

WalkTall

Yes, the thought that it is speaking about Jesus makes sense to me. In the scriptures where I find the phrase 'word of God' (Heb 4:12; Matt 15:6 Acts 11:1; 1 Thess 2:13) it doesn't seem to fit that they are talking about the OT books. The context seems different than when they are quoting from the OT; or when Paul was talking about the Scriptures (OT prophesies) that he felt were inspired. It seems that where this phrase appears, they are talking about something new, something that was replacing the old traditions, so the thought of it meaning Jesus himself would fit.

PSacramento

when Paul was talking about the Scriptures (OT prophesies) that he felt were inspired.

A very good point, Paul felt that the scriptures that HE agreed with were inspired, we know that he didn't agree with all of them, such as the hebrews being the "only chosen ones" or some of the rabbinic laws.

donuthole

Unless otherwise indicated the Word should probably be identified as Jesus. Even indirectly it when God is said to speak it can be understood to represent Jesus. For instance the Genesis 1 creation account has God speaking and through his word bringing things into existence. NT Christians understood this to apply to Jesus. There is pre-Christian basis for this as in the OT the Word of God is personified.

wantingtruth

the "word of God"

4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.

Jesus included also the teachings (words) He was preaching

6. Jesus therefore answered them and said, My teaching is not mine, but his that sent me.

wantingtruth

When the NT references the "word of God" what is it referring to?

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