1 Corinthians 7:12, Paul states, "I, not the Lord", vs. 2 Timothy 3:16-17 and "all scripture" being inspired.

by miseryloveselders 3 Replies latest watchtower bible

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  miseryloveselders

  There's different translations regarding the Corinthian text, but I pasted the New Living Translation 2007" version as its the most colorful.

  Now, I will speak to the rest of you, though I do not have a direct command from the Lord. If a Christian man has a wife who is not a believer and she is willing to continue living with him, he must not leave her.

  So Paul highlights the fact that he's speaking from his view in this letter. On the other hand we have Paul's letter to Timothy which goes, "All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, 17 so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work. ".

  So I'm curious as to your views on this. The verse in 2 Timothy is often used as a blank check to justify anything and everything as being substantial and worth our consideration if found in the Canon. However on the other hand, Paul admits in the letter to the Corinthians that he was speaking from "his own" views, and not that of the Christ. To me at least, this raises a couple questions. Should I consider all scripture as inspired, and use all of it, as a law in my life as if God directly spoke it? Should I discard certain things, considering Jesus put an end to the way things were done, and the way people thought prior to His life and death?

  There's other questions related to these that can be raised, please share them if I missed them. Share your thoughts, as I'm curious.
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  Meeting Junkie No More

  At the time Paul wrote the "All scripture is inspired" bit, he was speaking only of what constituted Scripture at that time - ergo, the Old Testament (Hebrew Scriptures) - even the Society admits as much in one of the latest rags...
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  Chalam

  Hi MLE,

  Yes I wondered about the "I, not the Lord" as well. Have a read here of the ESV Study Bible for a good explanation.

  1 Cor. 7:12–13 I, not the Lord. Paul knows the oral tradition of Jesus' sayings on divorce that were later written down in the Gospels (see note onvv. 10–11), but he is not aware that Jesus ever spoke specifically to a situation in which one spouse becomes a Christian and the other remains unconverted. He carefully distinguishes, therefore, between the written words of Jesus as recorded in the Gospels and Paul's own understanding of how Jesus' teaching would apply to this new situation. Paul views his admonition here as authoritative and inspired, not merely as human wisdom (v. 40; cf. 14:37–38). a wife . . . a husband who is an unbeliever. Is the believing partner defiled by being married to and having sexual relations with an unbeliever? Should they divorce? Clearly the believing partner is not defiled, for Paul says that if the believing partner has any say in the matter, they should not divorce. « Less

  Blessings,

  Stephen
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  TTWSYF

  Doesn't scripture say 'what God has brought together, let no one pull apart'. Sorry, I don;t have the book, chap and verse, but I'm sure it rings a bell. I know that there are other scriptures indicating that husbands and wives can decide to leave each other, but no one should tell a person to leave their husband or wife. IMHO of course.

  dc