If Jesus' own apostles had little faith and the apostle Thomas refused to believe Jesus had been resurected until he saw him, how can we be expected to have faith nearly 2,000 years later?
Jesus made a special effort to help doubting Thomas believe, getting Thomas to put his fingers into his wound, etc. It was only then that Thomas said "My Lord and my God." If Jesus did that to help remove the doubts of one of his own apostles, why would Jesus not do something similar today to remove the doubts of untold agnotics and skeptics and atheists? Its much harder for us to believe than for Thomas.
I don't think it would be just at all for God to annihilate anyone at Armageddon unless they are given a final opportunity to believe in him, simply because it is too hard to have faith today. Jesus said when he returns "will he find the faith on the earth?"
All the modern-day doubting Thomas', who are probably the majority of humankind, need something miraculous to help them believe. Only after that could any destruction of them be justified, surely. Everywhere a person looks he sees reasons for having faith attacked by such things as evolution theory, atheism, apathy. Why would God destroy forever at Armageddon an otherwise good person who listens to their conscience but who finds it almost impossible to have faith?
How could God's sovereignty be vindicated by his wiping out the lives of literally billions of persons because they had no faith or had put their faith in the wrong thing, without first giving them the evidence they feel they need to believe? Surely a God of love would do that, would do everything he could first to avoid having to kill all those faithless, godless persons? It doesn't seem reasonable to expect everyone to fully believe based only on what is read in ancient writings. The very fact they are so ancient makes them inherently very difficult to trust. Unless revelation is personally experienced it is technically only hearsayand should be viewed with suspicion.
Anyone else wonder about such things?