Does the word Christian appear in the NT ?

by mP 8 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • mP
    mP
    http://codexsinaiticus.org/en/search.aspx?dd_books=&searchTarget=transl&searchquery=christian&x=0&y=0
    1 Peter, Chapter 4, Verse 16

    but if he suffer as a Christian , let him not *be ashamed, but let him glorify God in

    result_item_arrow.gifActs, Chapter 26, Verse 28

    little labor thou persuadest me so as to make me a Christian .

    result_item_arrow.gifActs, Chapter 11, Verse 26

    multitude; also, that the disciples were called Christian s first in Antioch.

    --

    Go check the actual Greek and notice the translators have corrected chrEstian to chrIstian in each scripture.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tacitus_on_Christ#Christians_and_Chrestians

    Van Voorst has stated that it was unlikely for Tacitus himself to refer to Christians as Chrestianos i.e. "useful ones" given that he also referred to them as "hated for their shameful acts". [17]

    BTW the rest of paragraph is an interesting read, but its particularly interesting that the original word didnt mean follower of christ but "Useful ones".

  • Jaime l de Aragon
    Jaime l de Aragon

    NO This word first applied by the Gentiles of Antioch scornfully, as claimed by the learned WE Vine,

  • mP
    mP

    jaime

    Dont repeat what you have been taught. Check the Codex Sinaticus itself, you will find the Gr does not say Christian as in follower of Christ.

  • Fernando
    Fernando

    The Aramaic English New Testament (AENT) translated by Andrew Gabriel Roth, has very interesting comments on this, in the footnotes for the above 3 scriptures.

  • Bobcat
    Bobcat

    Here is what the NIDNTT Vol II p.342 says about it:

    Xpistianos (Christianos), Christian

    The identification of the messiah with Jesus of Nazareth brought the disciples the name Christianoi. Compared with other names for the followers of Jesus, like disciple or believer, the word is quite rare in the NT. By its whole formation it is a word which defines the one to whom it is applied as belonging to the party of a certain Christos, very much as Herodianos is a technical term for the followers of Herod (Mk 3:6; 12:13; Matt 22:16). Its use also presupposes that for the Gk. enviroment of developing Christianity christos had taken on the meaning of a proper name, a process which would have been facilitated by the resemblance to the name Chrestos, pronounced Christos. According to Acts 11:26, Christianos was first used for Christians in Syrian Antioch. This passage, like the two others in which the word occurs in the NT (Acts 26:28; 1 Pet 4:16), leads us to suppose that, being applied to Christians by outsiders, it contained an element of ridicule and that in this it did not differ from the description Nazarenos or Nazoraios (see above). Like it and like many other names formed in the same way, it soon became a name which those called by it felt honoured to bear.

    (Italics is as it appears in the article.)

    Fernando:

    Any chance you could reproduce the footnotes from the Aramaic English NT that you mentioned (if they are not too long to type). You have my interest up.

    (Either way thanks)

    Take Care

  • NOLAW
    NOLAW

    In Claudius 25 Suetonius refers to the expulsion of Jews by Claudius and states:

    "Since the Jews constantly made disturbances at the instigation of Chrestus, he expelled them from Rome."

    Both ι and η are pronοunced similarly in Greek. Actually η is a long ι. Today it is the practice to translate ηinto English with i and not with e.

  • mP
    mP

    NoLaw:

    English has a lot of similar rules that are broken all the time. The same is true of the Greek, im not doubting a single word of your statement.

    Your quote from Suetonius is correct, im just stating that he is using a different word with a different meaning. Xians lie about many things, thiis is yet another. It only takes a few minutes to check for yourself.

  • mP
    mP

    Bob:

    Here is what the NIDNTT Vol II p.342 says about it:

    Xpistianos (Christianos), Christian

    The identification of the messiah with Jesus of Nazareth brought the disciples the name Christianoi. Compared with other names for the followers of Jesus, like disciple or believer, the word is quite rare in the NT. By its whole formation it is a word which defines the one to whom it is applied as belonging to the party of a certain Christos, very much as Herodianos is a technical term for the followers of Herod (Mk 3:6; 12:13; Matt 22:16). Its use also presupposes that for the Gk. enviroment of developing Christianity christos had taken on the meaning of a proper name, a process which would have been facilitated by the resemblance to the name Chrestos, pronounced Christos. According to Acts 11:26, Christianos was first used for Christians in Syrian Antioch. This passage, like the two others in which the word occurs in the NT (Acts 26:28; 1 Pet 4:16), leads us to suppose that, being applied to Christians by outsiders, it contained an element of ridicule and that in this it did not differ from the description Nazarenos or Nazoraios (see above). Like it and like many other names formed in the same way, it soon became a name which those called by it felt honoured to bear.

    (Italics is as it appears in the article.)

    mP:

    THe text in the CS clearly was with an E and later changed to I, the spac eof the lettering shows this without doubt. This copy must have been made by a xian or someone paid to do so. If Chr E stus was an insult it makes no sense for it to appear in original form in the CS . We can continue to speculate but theere is a simpler explaination, the original form was with an E and not I, meaning the original followers of the religion were not known as followers of Christ. By dishonestly changing the text they are rewriting history.

  • mP
    mP

    Fernando

    The Aramaic English New Testament (AENT) translated by Andrew Gabriel Roth, has very interesting comments on this, in the footnotes for the above 3 scriptures.

    MP:

    Practially all scholars believe and evidence shows that the gospels were written in Greek. Any claim that they were in Aramaic is completely unsubstantiated. The text itself is clearly Greek we can find many examples where the author gives some phrase in Aramaic and then provides a translation.

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