Hi all!
(I have wanted to ask this for a long time but I can never post from my phone and rarely get a chance to sit at the computer)
Just wondering ... what is the actual scriptural justification the governing body is using with regards to this new light of only them being the faithful and discreet slave?
IE - are they saying something like "based on this original Greek word that Jesus used", or "when compared with this other scripture", or something along those lines?
Or is it pretty much "Jehovah told us this is what it meant"?
Thanks!