In Johns Gospel Jesus refers to the "Helper" "the Spirit of Truth" saying "when HE arrives He will etc"
The WT justified their use of HE in this instance, because in greek the word is masculine gender.
(Aside from the ludricrousness of this argument - english does have neuter pronouns)
Have they changed HE to IT inthese passages?
I say their argument is ludicrous because a good translation uses the TARGET language correctly.
For instance in french "chaise" (chair) is feminine, but you would not translate into english "SHE is a comfortable chair".
In German "Madchen" (little girl) is neuter, but the english would not be "IT is a pretty girl".
In english we refer to boats and ships as "she", but if you translated a french novel about the sea into english you would not have the captain saying "HEs a good boat" (french "bateau is masculine") it is just not a good translation.
If greek has a neuter gender, why would Jesus use a masculine instead of neuter for an impersonal force?