At Luke 21:8 Jesus is recorded as telling his disciples:
"Look out that you are not deceived; for many will come on the basis of my name, saying, 'I am he', and, 'The due time has approached.' Do not go after them."
At Revelation 1:1-3 we read:
"A revelation by Jesus Christ which God gave him to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place. And he sent forth his angel and presented it in signs through him to his slave John, 2 who bore witness to the word God gave, even to all the things he saw. 3 Happy is he who reads aloud and those who hear the words of this prophecy, and who observe the things written in it; for the appointed time is near."
The koine phrase translated "The due time has approached" is basically the same as the koine phrase translated "the appointed time is near". And revelation is given on the basis of Jesus' name for it is a "a revelation of Jesus Christ" and records Jesus speaking in the first person in many early verses. Also Luke's reference to the use of the phrase "I am he" could be indicative that false prophets will give messages purporting to be the direct speech of Jesus himself, thus using Jesus' authority to command the obedience of their followers. Revelation does this in Revelation 1:17-19
So what's going on here? Did someone very early on after the writing of Revelation, edit or insert Luke 21:8 as a ploy to discredit Revelation? Revelation was, after all, a dubious and much contested book in the early church, and which was almost left out of the cannon. Or what if Luke was written after Revelation by someone who was anti the book of Revelation? Or maybe this is just a coincidence that highlights another stunning, massively overlooked contradiction in the bible that proves it's not inspired.
Whatever the case, can we honestly deny that the book's contents falls within the scope of the warning given at Luke 21:8?