The spiritual DNA of our faith was "Protestant" for over 100 years, until 1985, after which it changed to a Catholic sense. What do I mean? For example, for decades we were presented with the example of the Bereans who "were more noble-minded than those of Thessalonica" because they went to see in the scriptures if what Paul preached to them was really like that. This personal verification of the scriptures is typical of the "Protestant" approach. But even more impressive is the second question that was asked of those being baptized until 1985. That is: "On the basis of this faith in God and in his provision for salvation, have you dedicated yourself without reserve to God to do his will from now on as *he will reveal it to you through Jesus Christ and through the Bible under the enlightening power of the Holy Spirit*?" [W 1/10/73 pg.600 pr.25]
That is, it speaks of the Will of God that "*YOU* will reveal through Jesus Christ..the Bible ...under the Holy Spirit"...it seems like another religion. And in fact it was.
Since 1985, however, the Thessalonians have been increasingly placed before us and less so the Bereans, the Thessalonians in fact "accepted the Word (preached by Paul) as the Word of God" [1 Thes.2:13] without going to look at the scriptures like the Bereans. And unlike the Protestant cut of the second question before immersion, since 1985 this one has been placed:
"Do you understand that your dedication and your baptism identify you as a Jehovah's Witness *associated with the organization directed by the spirit of God*?" [W 1/10/1985 pg.20].
With this change of direction, the individual believer is subjected to the organization that is mentioned here for the first time. The slight syntactic adjustments that followed have not modified the structure of the new "Catholic" DNA. I say Catholic because, unlike the Protestant faith, the Catholic recognizes a centralized spiritual guide identified with the government of the Church located in Rome with the Pope at its head. The teaching of the doctrine occurs through the magisterium of the Church and the believer entrusts himself to it, recognizing it as a divine guide and disavowing his own competence in understanding the Scriptures.
Why this shift towards Catholicism in an ecclesiological sense? The most reasonable answer is to maintain greater unity, which perhaps is better called uniformity. It is known that Protestantism has produced a great ecclesial fragmentation into many different streams and denominations based on the differences in doctrine that the various groups formulated autonomously. Catholicism, on the other hand, remains a single entity under the government of Rome and the Pope, at least formally. Here, since unity (or rather uniformity!) has been chosen, the hope is that we continue with the imitation of Catholicism also in the acceptance of the numerous religious movements and orders that express different ways of living the faith. In fact, we see notable differences in the "way" of expressing the faith, for example, between the Franciscan friars and the Dominicans, between the Jesuits and the socialist priests like Don Gallo, between the order of Opus Dei and the Neocatechumenal Servants of Jahve... and I have only given a few examples. They are all "under" the guidance of Rome but are free to live their way of understanding the Christian vocation. Rome accepts them and praises them even recognizing that it does not have the exclusive right to the work of the Holy Spirit. As long as they accept a fundamental belief and, at least formally, submission to the Catholic magisterium. Here, if our dear CD did the same among us instead of suppressing the legitimate and blessed variants of Christianity that we also show, we would last as long as the Church after the Protestant Reformation. So we should start from a corpus of doctrines beyond discussion, formulated with carefully chosen words that do not exceed the fingers of both hands. The rest of the teachings will have a lower importance and therefore susceptible to free discussion.
Returning to the Bereans and Thessalonians... I don't know if it's just a coincidence but how come we don't have a first letter of Paul to the Bereans? And then a Second to the Bereans? While we have 2 to the Thessalonians? Answer: because the Bereans, those who studied the scriptures, coincidentally did not have the spiritual problems that the Thessalonians showed, those who accepted Paul's preaching sight unseen, on trust, without the effort of personally verifying what God's will was with their own mental faculties, the _loghikén latréian_ of Romans 12:1,2. And it is not because there were more disciples in Thessalonica than in Berea, the opposite is true. According to Acts 17 in Thessalonica "some" became believers (v.4) while in Berea "many" (v.12) and precisely because they showed that nobility of mind that pushed them to delve deeply into the Word and convince themselves rationally. Whatever the WT says, the Bereans are better than the Thessalonians. Better to risk a different thought than herds of simpletons who remain spiritual infants always in need of being told what they should do.