Doug, I have a problem with the heading on p46: "The Christian Bible faced strong competition during the early centuries"
The implication here was that the Christian Bible existed at that time, which of course it did not. Many of the texts later incorporated would have been in circulation as 2nd century fragments and the Chester Beatty papyri demonstrate.The selection of texts used for the NT was not until the Roman Church drew up their approved list in the fourth century, having chosen those which would best suit their theology at that time. Only after then could it be possible to have a semblance of the modern sense of "Bible". Even then the concept of "books" only came about when the codex or book format began around 320CE. Chrysostum's apparent first reference of the word "Bible" was his quotation from an earlier document; "the books" meaning various Jewish and Christian scrolls is hardly the same as our perception of Bible today. (Chrysostum died 407CE)
So Jerome's Latin translation efforts under Papal instruction (Vulgate) would mean that the modern Bible-as-we-know-it could not have been before 405 CE. To find when the word Bible became in general use would probably lead us to the 15th century when they began printing the Catholic version as one volume.
I mention this not to be nit picking but to rectify the casualness with which Bible societies use the term Bible as if it were there from the first century.