I am trying to fathom out whether the Bible is inspired or not?
Daniel 9:25 talks of the time when the messiah was expected to appear. Were the jews expecting this? The reason that I am asking is that I am reading a book that states that the Jews were looking for a messiah that would lead them against the Romans. Many men tried to be this person. So using this reasoning, could not the OT be a book that should be taken seriously?
The OT made prophecies about the messiah. Many men tried to be this person, granted. But how does this lend credence to the OT prophecies?
All those who tried to be the Jew's messiah failed. The prophecies were not fulfilled, except in the minds and pens of the spin doctors who wrote the NT.
The Jews were never victorous against the Romans. According to them, their messiah never came.
Good point. . . the prophesies re the Messiah were not fulfilled in Jesus as the Romans stayed in charge.
Many have charged that the gospels were written with the slant of 'fulfilling this and that prophecy.'
A case in point is the writer of Matthew stating that Jesus was born of a virgin to fulfull Isaiah's prophecy . Well Matthew had the Greek Septuagint version which had mistranslated the Hebrew word for 'young woman' into a Greek word for 'virgin.' So, the 'prophecy' had to do with the babe being named 'Emmanuel,' not the 'virgin' birth. This can be verified by footnotes of original words in the Jerusalem Bible.
I also had a thread on it 2-3 weeks ago on the Bible Research forum which quoted a large section of a book on Hebrew mythology.