Does Hell Exist?

by sIR cADOGEN 2 Replies latest jw experiences

  • sIR cADOGEN
    sIR cADOGEN

    How come both the Greek New Testament and the Hebrew Old Testament are indicative of the existence of Hell (Gk='Gehenna'; Hb='Sheol') and yet two witnesses who visited recently states that Hell does not exist according JW doctrine.
    Need to go offline in 10 mins so reply soon please :?

  • outnfree
    outnfree

    According to JW Theology, Sheol and Hades refer "not to an individual burying palce, but to the common grave of dead mankind; also, the Greek Ge'en.na, which is used as a symbol of eternal destruction." (Reasoning from the Scriptures) These words are often translated as "hell", "the grave", "the world of the dead." But "the world of the dead" in ancient Jewish thought did not include Christendom's idea of a place inhabited by demons and where the wicked, after death are punished in a fiery torment. It was just where one went after one died. Hence, the reason your two Witnesses stated that Hell does not exist. (They misspoke, actually.)

    The Witnesses believe that since the dead are not conscious at death, nor do they feel pain (Eccl. 9:5,10; Ps. 146:4), Christendom's view of a place of torment is wrong. Otherwise, why would the good man Job, pray to be protected by God in hell? (Job 14:13) Also, Jesus went to hell for parts of three days.

    They would tell you that Ezek. 18:4 teaches that the soul dies along with the body, that the soul is, in fact, the life force which ceases to exist at death. One might say that man, who is a living soul (Gen. 2:7) is the opposite of a corpse. And, Rev. 20:13,14 differentiates between those who are in hell and are raised up, and the lake of fire into which death and hell are later cast. So the "lake of fire" is not the same as Sheol and Hades. Rather they are symbolic of utter destruction.

    Since Jesus says that there is such a thing as eternal punishment in the KJV of Matt 25:46, a closer look at the Greek word
    rendered "punishment" there is warranted. According to a footnote in The Emphatic Diaglott the Greek ko'la-sin means "1. to cut off; 2. to restrain, to repress; 3. to chastise, to punish." and the JW's reason that "To cut off an individual from life, or society, or even to restrain, is esteemed as punishment. ... The righteous go to life, the wicked to the cutting off from life, or death. 2 Thess. 1:9 may clear this up depending on your Bible version.

    Now, of course, out of all Bible characters, Jesus uses the word translated "hell" [Gr. ge'hen.na] most, 12 times and 5 of those might be translated "hellfire." Gehenna (the Valley of Hinnom) in Jesus' day was the local incinerator for Jerusalem's refuse. So to the Witnesses, Jesus' use of Gehenna was an illustrative way of saying that all who were consigned to hell, were consigned to unconscious, utter decimation with no hope of a resurrection and that "Gehenna" parallels the "lake of fire" in Revelation. (Neither of which are the same as Sheol and Hades.)

    That sums up the JW view, as I always understood it. Hope this helps.

    outnfree

  • Carmel
    Carmel

    Does Hell exist? Well, three years ago while in New Dehli, my body was racked with "Dehli Belly", heat stroke, dehydration all at the same time.

    Yep, hell exists!

    carmel

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