Not being a science guy (my "higher education" came from being a pioneer and reading countless piles of Awake! shit) I have a question for you bio-chemists out there:
I recently heard this syllogism:
Assertion: "Humans who eat meat claim that they get their best source of protein from eating animals like cattle."
Assertion: "Cattle are a source of protein, and all they eat is vegetation."
Conclusion: "Vegetation provides all the protein we need. Cattle meat is merely the provider of that original protein that first came from plants."
I was a lacto-ovarian vegetarian (being a true vegan was just too much to ask of me: I still ate milk products, eggs and fish) for three-and-a-half years but went back to being a meat-eater for two reasons:
1) My former wife and I decided that by becoming vegetarians we did not have the right to impose the same on our children, and so gave them the choice of joining us, or not. They said "NO!" They wanted MEAT! She therefore had to cook TWO separate meals each evening for us all. The veggie meals got boring and she lost interest in being creative about the food she was offering for the two of us, so we both went back to the horrors of prime rib, rib-eyes, pork loins and other terrible foods.
2) I came to realize that my ancestors didn't fight long and hard for people like me to rise to the top of the food-chain to eat stuff at the BOTTOM of the food-chain! (Tongue-in-cheek, here!)
I've heard arguments about vegetables being "incomplete" protein, whereas meat is "complete" protein and I've heard counter-arguments about that, too.
While I'm waiting for you chemists to enlighten me, I think I'll chaw on a hunk of meat from a deal animal.
In short my question is: "Can a plant which might not contain protein, be converted to protein in an animal which is in fact a source of protein?" If so, how does protein get created then?
Farkel, the curious
"Shakin' the Bush, Boss. Shakin' the Bush" Class