private interpretation and power

by peacefulpete 4 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    Another verse treasured by the Wt is 2 Peter 1:20: "First of all you must understand this, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation.."

    This condemnation of personal reading and understanding is reemphasized in 3:16b: "There are some things hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the rest of the scriptures."

    These words were not written by Peter. Whatever can be known about this Peter we know he did not write this. For a brief review of the reasons why both 1 Peter and 2 Peter are not regarded as authentic go to:Early Christian Writings: New Testament, Apocrypha, Gnostics, Church ...

    The point is simple. Why have scriptures 'inspired' and 'preserved' if the understanding of them is only possible under inspiration? Do they serve any practical purpose then? Were they 'inspired' and 'preserved' to be an intellectual trap? Of what value were they to those without ecclesiastical guidance? Did they misunderstand them and doomed to 'destruction'? More elemental questions arise. What is scripture? And who determines this?

    The early Church leadership saw the vast diversity of interpretations (to say nothing about versions) of the writings about Jesus and Paul. It seems human nature to organize, but to do this consolidation of power and uniting of sects, some type of central hierchy was necessary. This is the history of all new movements. A few inspirational ideas spawn a plethera of loosly organized bodies that meet to discuss and reinterpret those ideas. I see that as happening in commercial enterprises and ideological movements as well. Sooner or later someone arises to unit the loosly affiliated into one large orthodoxy. This doesn't last long because of the opposing human nature for independant thought, but he central power will generally continue to shape the direction that idea or movement goes. Anyhow, the author of 2 Peter was attempting to do just that, he represented a blosoming orthodoxy within Christian sects and knew the key to this was establishing ecclesiastical teaching power to not only determine which works would be regarded as scripture but just how those texts were to be interpreted. Groups like the Wt have seen the cetral power of the Church dissolve gradually so that no single voice represents the whole. The Wt, like other hierchal Christian sects, seeks to be that voice, but without the unique political situation that existed in the 2nd and 3rd centuries they must resign themselves to be paper tigers as they say. They insist they are unique and appointed to sanction or condemn doing so through an interpretation of the scriptures handed to them by tradition. They assert that they never would desire to have power beyond that they now possess. This rings about as true as an extremist environmentalist saying he would never want to be able to change the government by becoming part of the government. Fringe likes to be fringe it is true but if handed the power to enforce one's views on others very few could resist. If the world was a different place today, more like that of the 2nd century, the hierchal mentality of the Wt leadership would soon evolve into that of the early Church Fathers.

  • ithinkisee
    ithinkisee
    For a brief review of the reasons why both 1 Peter and 2 Peter are not regarded as authentic go to:Early Christian Writings: New Testament, Apocrypha, Gnostics, Church ...

    Whenever I go to links like this my eyes glaze over.

    I have no idea where to even go. The subheadings and link titles make almost no sense to me. . .except for where there are bible names or bible books I recognize.

    I wish I could get into that stuff. . .I just can't. Thankfully there are those on this list that can dumb it down for the rest of us.

    -ithinkisee

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    Everyone from the start has to stretch out a bit to grow. At the site just click on 1 or 2 Peter and read the excerpts and quotes from various works to get a brief overview of the book.

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia

    You make a good point about the political nature of early Christianity and how authority to interpret scripture was consolidated into the ecclesiastical structure. The second-century emphasis on heretical teachings espoused by false teachers (cf. the Pastorals, Ignatius, Justin Martyr, Irenaeus, etc.) is quite different from the criteria in the Didache for identifying false teachers, which mainly revolve around their actions (such as asking for money, outstaying their welcome, etc.).

    Regarding 2 Peter 1:20, note that the NIV renders it differently: "Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation," which fits better logically with the next verse: "For (gar) prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit". Baukham gives some interesting arguments for such a rendering: (1) The genitive epiluseós "interpretation" with the verb ginetai can have the sense of a genitive of origin, with the verb meaning "derives from, arises"; (2) Prophecies themselves were "interpretations" of dreams, omens, visions, and are referred to as such in the literature. Thus, in Aquila's translation of the OT, epilusis and epiluein occur with reference to Joseph's interpretations of dreams (Genesis 40:8; 41:8, 12), and these prophetic "interpretations" were explicitly attributed to God (40:8). The prophecies of Daniel, Zechariah, etc. were likewise interpretations of dreams and visions (cf. Zechariah 1:8; Daniel 7:2, 8:1). 4 Ezra 10:43 uses the Latin equivalent of epilusis to refer to a prophecy stemming from visions, and Hermas repeatedly used epilusis and epiluein in interpreting his similitudes (cf. Similitude 5.3.1-2, 5.4.2-3, 5.5.1, 5.6.8, 5.7.1, etc.). More reminiscent of 2 Peter 1:20 is a reference to a false prophecy in Pseudo-Callisthenes (2.1.5), who referred to the false prophetess as giving "your own interpretation" (seauté epelusas); (3) The word idios was frequently used in Hellenistic and early Christian texts to deny that prophecies derive from human agency:

    "For a prophet utters nothing that is his own (idion ouden), but everything he utters belongs to another (allotria), since another is prompting (hupékhésé) him" (Philo of Alexandria, Quis Rerum Divinarum Heres, 259; compare with De Vita Mosis 1.271, 286).
    "A prophet declares nothing at all that is his own (ouden idion), but is an interpreter (herméneus) of another who suggests everything he utters" (Philo of Alexandria, De Specialibus Legibus, 4.49).
    "The prophet seems to say something, but he does not give his own oracle but is the interpreter (herméneus) of another, who puts things into his mind" (Philo of Alexandria, Quaestiones Genesin, 3.10).
    "For they did not speak from their own power (ex idias dunameós ephthengonto) ..., nor did they proclaim what they wished, but first they were endowed with true Wisdom through the Word, and then they were correctly taught about the future through visions" (Hippolytus, De Antichristus, 2).

    The parallels between 2 Peter 1:20-21 and Philo are quite suggestive, wherein idios occurs with reference to human agency for prophecies, and twice Philo refers to the prophet as an "interpreter" of another (i.e. God); although this involves a different word than in 2 Peter 1:20, it reflects the interpretive role of the prophet. There are also less close parallels in the OT; Jeremiah 23:16 (LXX) and Ezekiel 13:3 (LXX) refer to false prophets speaking "from their own heart (apo kardias autón)". Methodius (Convivium, 8.10) also mentions the rationale why the Ebionites rejected all prophets subsequent to Moses; according to them, "the prophets spoke from their own inspiration (ex idias kinéseós)". Epiphanius similarly claimed that the Ebionites "say that the prophets are prophets of intelligence (suneseós) and not of truth" (Panarion, 30.18.5), and the Ebionite material in the Pseudo-Clementines also express a similar view. Baukham feels that it is unlikely that the author of 2 Peter was engaged in an actual polemic against the Ebionites, but the Ebionite view still involved similar language and concepts as in 2 Peter 1:20-21.

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    Thanks Leolaia, once again, that does appear to be a better translation.

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