It isn't new moon/beginning of the Jewish month nor is it full moon, so why did Russell pick that day to declare the Gentile times had ended? I understand that October is chosen because of Gedaliah's murder, but all we know is that it was in Tishri. The Bible doesn't pin it down further than that and it's entirely speculation that the murder and the Jews' flight to Egypt occurred in the first half of the month.
*** w75 11/1 p. 661 par. 15 The Time for Choosing God as Sovereign ***
This fact of universal interest has been true since the year 1914 C.E. In that year “the times of the Gentiles,” or, “the appointed times of the nations,” ended about October 4/5, when counted from the desolation of Jerusalem and the land of Judah by the Babylonians in the year 607 B.C.E.
*** w71 12/1 pp. 717-718 par. 1 What Its “Right Condition” Means for Us Today ***
The Gentile Times had begun about the middle of the lunar month Tishri in 607 B.C.E., and so their 2,520 years of duration would end in 1914 about Tishri 15, which corresponds with October 4/5.
*** w68 12/15 p. 749 par. 37 “Your Deliverance Is Getting Near” ***
We need not here repeat the proof that the Gentile Times, “the appointed times of the nations,” ended around October 1, 1914. History proves it!
*** w64 11/1 p. 651 par. 19 Jerusalem—“A Burdensome Stone to All the Peoples” ***
Because in the seventh Jewish lunar month of that year, or about October 1, 1914, the “times of the Gentiles” ended.
*** w50 7/15 p. 216 par. 1 Postwar Enlargement of the Theocratic Organization ***
October 1, 1914, on taking his place at the breakfast table in the Brooklyn Bethel dining-room, he [Russell] in a strong voice denoting conviction announced: “The Gentile Times have ended!”
Do we actually know when the Gentile times were supposed to have ended? Was it October 1, October 2 or October 4/5, 1914?