but my bringing this point forward is simply to show that Daniel may well be alerting the reader to a different context or thought by the choice of this word.
No, on the contrary, the point you have been trying to make is that the NWT translators' use of "kingship" rather than "reign" is theologically significant and is meant to alert the reader.
Daniel used the same word [malkut] that is translated interchangeably as "reign" and "kingship" throughout the NWT. HE is not alerting the reader to anything new by HIS choice of the word malkut.
It is the NWT translators whom you claim are alerting the reader to a different context by their use of "kingship" rather than "reign".
Actually, if Daniel is alerting us to anything, it is to be careful of the WT's claims. It is very interesting to note that he places extra emphasis on Jehoiakim's being a king by his repetition of "malkut ... melek", as Earnest and I have pointed out.
There are three ways the Bible commonly expresses years:
a) In the third year of So-and-So
b) In the third year of the reign of So-and-So
c) In the third year of King So-and-So
But Daniel uses BOTH words, as if to alert the reader that Jehoiakim is a king and this is the third year of his reign.
d) In the third year of the reign of Jehoiakim, King of Judah ...
Marjorie