:: one that I've tried to explain a number of times in this thread: just because someone says that some specific period of time has elapsed from a beginning event until today does not necessarily mean that the person is assigning a completed period
It also does not automatically mean that they are not. The singular form of 'these' and 'year' in the original text, can be validly interpreted in agreement with the assertion that a discrete 70-year period is intended.
Jeffro ---
I'm fighting off a summer cold and haven't yet caught up on all the recent messages in this thread, but I do have a comment/question about the exchange quoted above (especially in light of Narkissos's message at the top of this page).
Are you basing your current understanding of the Zechariah passages on the fact that zeh appears in the singular? If so, I am somewhat concerned that you may have misunderstood my earlier posts.
A couple of days ago you were of the opinion that the word "these" does not appear in the Hebrew text. That's when I jumped in to say that, yes, actually, the demonstrative pronoun is in the text.
Perhaps I should have left it at that, but I get sort of compulsive about details, so I went ahead and brought up something I had mentioned earlier, which is that the word "zeh" is actually the singular form of the demonstrative pronoun (henceforth "DP"). (Usually, but obviously not always, when you see "these" in the English translation, you'd expect to see 'elleh (common plural DP).
I then shrugged this off as not a big deal by saying the usage was as if it were being treated as a collective noun. I rather suspect you've taken what I said and run with it, and perhaps in a way I would not go, myself. If so, I fear it's because I don't use the linguistic terminology as precisely as Narkissos, who is far abler than I to explain things using proper grammatical terms.
I read Hebrew, but it's only occasionally that I consult the various advanced reference grammars we have at home (Jouon/Muraoka, Waltke, Gesenius, van der Merwe.) I look things up when I am puzzled about a particular point, and then I may go ahead and read through a whole chapter while I am there, but just in a casual way. My husband, OTOH, and Narkissos have this linguistic stuff down pat.
So, Jeffro, if anything I have said seems unclear to you, please go by Nark, who is a real expert.
Anyway, I was a little surpised to see that you have made a rapid leap from stating that the word "these" doesn't even appear in the text to now saying that the singular form "can be validly interpreted in agreement with the assertion..." If I might, I'd just like to urge a little caution. Since you don't know Hebrew, you have to be extra careful about making assumptions about language use in the Biblical text which are based on your knowledge of how English works.
And Nark, if I have goofed in anything I have said, or if I have misrepresented your views, please feel free to jump in anytime and straighten me out! I had meant to get back to you about the question of to what degree Hebrew distinguishes a difference between the near and the distant DP, but I got caught up in other things and never really finished looking through the lists in Evan-Shoshan.
On a quick read-through, it seemed to me that there was no instance in the MT of the kind of construction I had posited, where a modern rabbi, speaking of the forty years the Jews spent in the wilderness, might say "those forty years." That doesn't seem to be the kind of construction that would have been used, and I wonder if it has something to do with the way the ancient Hebrews thought of time. I thought I remembered seeing something relevant in DeVries (Yesterday, Today, and Tomorrow), but now I've misplaced the book.
Regards,
Marjorie