I was curious to find out if Trinitarians had an answer for this verse.
The answers forthcoming on the thread have been weak. The suggestion that Jesus was “taught” somehow “outside time” and it doesn’t point to disparity in knowledge, not only adds extra-biblical ideas into the equation, but it still fails to address the issue.
Job and Isaiah describe God as one who cannot be taught anything by anyone else.
Yet John says that Jesus was taught by his Father who sent him to earth.
Clearly, for the early Christians, Jesus was distinguished from and subordinate to God almighty. This verse shows that Jesus is less than God in terms of knowledge.
In order to force Trinitarian dogma into this text you end up making strange claims such as that being taught doesn’t imply you didn’t know beforehand, and OT verses that say God cannot be taught are somehow not at odds with “God the Son” being taught, so long as it’s “outside time”.