Strange that when considering the context of Rev 3:14 the video makes no mention of Rev 3:12 where Jesus refers to God as “my God”.
Or Rev 1:1 where it states that God gave Jesus the revelation to share with John, demonstrating there are some things God knows that Jesus only knows after God shares it with him.
Or Rev 1:5 that states that Jesus was dead and is alive again. God cannot die.
There are so many verses that talk about Jesus having a beginning - Rev 3:14 is just one of them. Micah 5:2 says Jesus’ “origin” is from ancient times. Col 1:15 says he is “the firstborn of all creation”. In Prov 8:22, a phrase that early Christians universally applied to Jesus says that, “Jehovah produced me, the beginning of his way” (or “created me” in the Greek that the early Christians used). In John 6:57 Jesus stated plainly, “I live because of the Father”. God doesn’t live because of anyone else, he is self-existent.
That’s a whole bunch of verses that seem to say Jesus was created. Or put it another way, if we are not supposed to understand that Jesus was created by God, then that’s a whole lot of verses that need to be explained away. It’s almost as if it’s important for us to realise that Jesus is God’s creation and distinct from God.
Beyond that there is the fact that Jesus and God are spoken about habitually as two separate beings throughout. Jesus is distinct and subordinate to God, which self evidently makes him part of creation, even if there weren’t all the verses saying precisely that.
We understand that angels are obviously part of creation even though scripture doesn’t describe them being created. There are far more references to Jesus as a creation than there are to angels being created. Do you know of any?
Yet when it comes to a single verse (Rev 22:3) where the pronoun could be ambiguous if you read it as a singular pronoun applied to two different beings this is offered as some kind of proof. If that one pronoun in one verse is proof that Jesus and God are not separate, then what about the hundreds of times that plural pronouns are used? Are they not proof of the opposite? Isn’t the simplest way to read Rev 22:3 to see the single pronoun as a reference to God alone? Nothing says it has to be read as a mysterious and isolated hint in the text about a Trinity doctrine that hadn’t even been dreamt up yet and wouldn’t be formulated for another 300 years.