???The point which you have consistently missed to the point where I believe it is deliberate, is that the Hebrew word for 'sinful' and 'wicked' are totally different both in meaning and grammatical use.???
Sinn = sense. Bedeutung = referent. Then a third aspect to this issue is the second-level theological abstraction formulated from the data being prescinded from, sir. What you fail to see is that a word can have a Sinn which differs from the Bedeutung (which is not a grammatical use, as you say) and the unpacked amplification or theological expansion on the word. If you knew anything about systematic theology, you would grasp the sense of what was just said, with alacrity. Since you do not, you don't. By the way, my use of Bedeutung is consistent with the Fregean spin on the word in 'ber Sinn und Bedeutung' of 1892.
???In Psalm 58:3 as you noted yourself, the Hebrew 'sinful' is not being used, yet you ascribe the Psalmist as having meant 'sinful'. What are you playing at???
Let me give you a theological example. Theologians will define OT concept of sin as a breach of the covenant.
They are not saying that the Hebrew word for sin MEANS a breach of the covenant. Only that a second-level abstraction of the semantic data leads one to conclude that sin = breach of Berit. Now do you got it?
Edited by - comforter on 15 July 2002 14:19:3