Hi Jaffacake. A good question to ask is: How would the Christians in the first century have understood Jesus' words? Would they have pondered on the so-called "historical sense" of Jesus words? Its a prophecy! Rev 22:12 says: "I come quickly ( not: "I HAVE come quickly ) and my reward is with me, to give every man according as his work shall be." The early Christians would have understood Jesus words to mean that soon ( in their lifetime ) Jesus would return and reward them with eternal life and destroy their oppressors ( a prophecy that clearly failed to come true ).
This is the understanding that Paul had, as shown at 1Thess 4:17: "Then WE which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them and meet the Lord in the air." Paul believed that he would live to see the return of Christ and then be taken up to heaven to meet him. This is what the first readers of Revelation would have understood by the prophecy at Rev 22:12.
As 'Almighty God' would have known too well that thats how they would have understood Rev 22:12, why did he allow it to be put in those words? Why didn't he 'clarify' it to them along the lines of your last posting? Does it not strike you as slightly ironic that Paul and the other early Christians were so wrong, so literalistic and one dimensional in their understanding, and yet todays 'mainstream theologians' have the correct and "spiritual"... "Christian perspective"?