Well, how about this nicely re-written appendix G from the pro-607 site which 3W is promoting (it's not online yet):
There are many tactics apostates use to explain-away the 40 years for Egypt and the 70 years for Tyre. Here are some of them:
Contradict yourself
Nebuchadnezzar's desolation of Egypt took place when he brought more exiles to Babylon in his 23rd year not in his 37th year.
Apart from contradicting their own secular history, and the problem of Neb's siege of Tyre lasting many years, this attempt to explain the problem away contradicts the Bible.
Their argument demands that Egypt was desolated by Nebuchadnezzar, but still powerful enough (and inhabited) so that King Neb returned many years later and attacked it a second time. The Bible disagrees, and specifically says that there "will not pass through it the foot of earthling man" for a full 40 years. Obviously, their desperate attempt to explain away the problem is wrong. See our chart to see how this looks on a time-line.
Additionally, according to them Ezekiel said (talking of the future) that Egypt would be given to Babylon. Even though, according to this explanation, it already had been and was, in fact, desolated already.
Needless to say, its a poor patchwork and an obvious attempt to explain away a critical problem.
Use a logical fallacy
In another prophecy about Tyre Ezekiel said Tyre would never be rebuilt but it was, therefore since the Tyre prophecy is figurative then the Egypt prophecy must be figurative.
First of all, the 70 year prophecy for Tyre is not figurative. Ancient Tyre was never rebuilt. The prophecy in Ezekiel says:
"...they will certainly spoil your resources and plunder your sales goods, and tear down your walls, and your desirable houses they will pull down. And your stones and your woodwork and your dust they will place in the very midst of the water. And I will cause the turmoil of your singing to cease, and the very sound of your harps will be heard no more. And I will make you a shining, bare surface of a crag. A drying yard for dragnets is what you will become. Never will you be rebuilt; for I myself, Jehovah, have spoken".
This part of the prophecy was indeed fulfilled in in a very literal way in two stagess. First, King Neb attacked the city as Ezekiel predicted. Yet that was only the beginning of Tyre's downfall. The prophecy had its complete fulfillment when Alexander the Great pitched the mainland city into the sea to build a causeway to the island part of the city before defeating that. The ancient city and Kingdom of Tyre was never rebuilt, and indeed did become a fishing village "a drying yard for dragnets".
However, in the initial fulfillment of this prophecy Nebuchadnezzar attacked the city and it was indeed "forgotten" for 70 years as Jehovah revealed through the prophet Isaiah. These are all literal - not figurative - events.
Yet what does this have to do with Egypt? Nothing. It is faulty reasoning to say of two totally unrelated subjects without any connection, 'Since this is figurative then that must also be figurative.' Even if we assume that Ezekiel's Tyre prophecy is figurative, it must be shown that this is somehow connected to the Egypt prophecy and that it must also be figurative. There is no connection except that both prophecies were made by Ezekiel.
Is it reasonable to conclude that all prophecies in the Bible are figurative because Ezekiel's Tyre prophecy is figurative (when we know it was not)? Do we assume that all prophecies of Ezekiel are figurative because the Tyre prophecy is figurative? Or do we just pick-and-choose whatever prophecy or time-period in the Bible doesn't fit with secular chronology and declare "this is figurative"?
Apparently some people do. How convenient for 587 promoters that they are allowed to do that.
Make something up
Jehovah told Jonah to tell Nineveh that it would be overthrown but when Nineveh repented he did not carry it out so likewise Egypt.
The Bible goes into detail in the story of Jonah and explains exactly how the king of Nineveh and his subjects repented, thus Jehovah spared them. Do we have such details of Egypt's repentance anywhere in the Bible? Are we told how Pharoah and his crowd repented in sackcloth and ashes when they heard of their coming destruction? Surely such a huge act of repentance by one of the most notoriously pagan nations in history would have been recorded in the Bible as an example for all? Why was such an incredible event never mentioned in the Bible not even once? Even traditional Jewish history records no such event, nor do Jewish historians such as Josephus.
Furthermore, how about in the secular evidence? Do we have available the ancient fragments describing to us how Pharaoh and his crowd left his pagan gods and turned to the worship of Jehovah? Why it is difficult to even answer this point without laughing? Probably because it is nonsense concocted by a 587 promoter on an Internet message board.
Use a logical fallacy: Argument from ignorance
There is no secular evidence that gives any indication that Egypt was desolated during this time period.
Actually, there is. Although there is very little secular evidence about Egypt during this time, It is not surprising that the nation of Egypt itself would fail to record such a defeat. After all, they did not record the exodus of the Israelites from Egypt either. Does that mean the exodus never happened?
However the Babylonians did record this defeat upon Egypt. The evidence shows that just two years after the final part of the prophecy against Egypt an attack was made by Neb against Egypt. The Babylonian chronicle known as BM 33041 says: "In the thirty-seventh year of Nebuchadnezzar, king of the country of Babylon, he went to Mitzraim (Egypt) to make war. Amasis, king of Egypt, collected [his army], and marched and spread abroad..."
Fortunately for 587 proponents the rest of the chronicle is badly damaged and the extent of the defeat of Egypt cannot be read. It would certainly be interesting to read if historians had available the entire inscription. There is a good possibility that we would have the further proof. However, the part of the chronicle that can be deciphered is enough to prove that a campaign by Neb against Egypt did take place right on time just after Ezekiel prophesied it. Just a coincidence? Hardly. Ezekiel's prophecy was fulfilled right on time.
Logical fallacy: If I don't know how it can be done, then it can't be done
There is no way that Babylon could have displaced millions of Egytians.
On the contrary, this is what Babylon was known to do. They had experience at displacing entire nations. This even happened to Judah where millions were killed and displaced by Babylon. The surrounding nations also suffered this fate.
Yes, there is proof positive that Babylon could and did exile entire nations from their homeland. On top of this, the all powerful Jehovah prophesied it and could make it so. What a straw grasping argument that goes against Jehovah's power and the actual nature of Nebuchadnezzar to exile people from their land!
My argument isn't wrong, the evidence is wrong!
Ezekiel was a false prophet and neither the Tyre prophecy nor the Egypt prophecy came true.
This argument is made by the ones that realize that if Ezekiel's prophecy is accurate then 587 is wrong. So rather than being dishonest and pretending that the Bible supports 587 they come right out and tell you that the Bible is wrong on this.
One well known leading opposer of 607 named Allan boldly declared: "Ezekiel demonstrably falsely prophesied about the ultimate rebuilding of Tyre, and all of his other prophecies are called into question...The simple fact is that Ezekiel prophesied falsely, and therefore his words cannot be taken as gospel." In making such an admission he admits that he is well aware that the Bible does not support 587 at all and can only support 607.
Make something up #2
Jehovah called off the desolation of Egypt because Nebuchadnezzar went too far in his harsh treatment of Judah thus God decided not to give Neb the spoils of Egypt.
How can this be the case? The final part of Ezekiel's prophecy was given about 17 years after Neb desolated Jerusalem, the 27th year of Ezekiel's exile. Therefore Jehovah had already seen and and for a fact knew exactly the treatment that Neb had measured out to Judah when he made the prophecy.
Do we imagine that Jehovah had temporary amnesia and thus prophesied that Neb would desolate Egypt and get much booty? Then Jehovah's memory returned so that he said, 'Nevermind. I just remembered what Neb did to my people in presumptuously going beyond what I wanted him to do. Scratch that last prophecy about Egypt's desolation.' The implications are ridiculous.
Besides, why did the prophets forget to mention this change-of-heart? Why is it not mentioned in the Bible even once? Why is the prophecy of 40 years recorded, but not the fact it didn't happen?
Furthermore, is it not awfully convenient to concoct these "explanations" to explain away whatever it is that contradicts your argument? How dishonest to say "oh, yeah the Bible did say that would happen, but it disagrees with my beliefs, therefore it mustn't have actually happened for some reason", and then go forth to make up that reason in your head and present it as fact.
if one is going to believe such things, why bother even reading what the Bible says at all, why not just make it all up and believe whatever you want?
Contradict yourself
40 years is not literal. 40 is symbolic of many years.
If that is the case then the Bible should provide examples of 40 year or day prophecies that turned out to be symbolic and not literally 40 years or days. And then there should be some viable reason, some proof that the symbolism should be applied in the case of Egypt's desolation. What do we find?
Some defenders of 587 have tried to use the 40 years the Israelites wandered in the wilderness, the raining of 40 days and 40 nights at the time of the flood, Jesus' 40 days in the wilderness, and so forth as proof that 40 can be symbolic of many. That's right - all these events covered 40 years or 40 days literally, not figuratively!
By using these examples they have done nothing more than disprove their own argument of a figurative 40 year desolation. There is not a single Bible precedent for assigning the 40 year desolation of Egypt as figurative. Doing that is literally without merit. On the contrary, every single 40-day or 40-year period in the Bible is shown to be literal. Amazing!
It seems that some people are so obsessed with discrediting Jehovah's Witnesses that they would sooner make the unreasonable and unscriptural arguments presented above than admit to clear logic and scripture. These persons stubbornly refuse to admit that secular chronology is wrong, and that the Bible is right. For anyone who believes the Bible, the year of 607 BCE is the only possible date for the destruction of Jerusalem - unless you want to entertain the "explanations" above, of course.
Amazing how somebody can get his assed whooped all over the place without giving honest answers to the "whoopers" and then claim victory on the subject and then present the whole discussion as above...
Provided for your entertainment en reading pleasure...
Greetz,
Effe