Hortensia.
Kensei01.
Thank you for commenting.
yureru omoi - zard (izumi sakai).
she who has sung this song passed away in 2007.. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/izumi_sakai.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=umha4dj4ojk.
Hortensia.
Kensei01.
Thank you for commenting.
sayonara (good-bye) - off course (kazumasa oda, 1982).
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nkqtuegks1c.
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Kensei01.
Sorry.
I have not said my address in such a public forum.
I live in the "Kanto plains."
I am an ex-JW.
Well, I can not make out the meaning of the "land of the martial spirit."
What does it mean?
ohiocowboy.
Even now, he (Kazumasa Oda) is a very famous singer in Japan.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kazumasa_Oda
With regard to "Mothra and Godzilla", in Japan, even if they are famous, they are NOT popular.
Probably, in Japan, the Ultraman series is more popular.
For many Japanese, Godzilla is not a hero, but Ultraman is a hero.
But, possibly, 50 to 60-year-old Japanese people may love them.
Well, I think that Japan is one of the safest countries in the world.
Please visit Japan again someday.
I must learn English more, and if I can, I would like to guide you.
Tabidachi Nishi e - Chihiro Onitsuka://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gBDVDeupbhc
possible
"ultraman taro".
when i was an elementary school student, i loved this.. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=isvxknm0a2e.
.
nancy drew.
Do you know "Spectreman"?
Was this broadcasted in the U.S.?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spectreman
In my opinion, in Japan, the persons who know Spectreman are rare.
What kind of super heroes (e.g., Ultraman etc) do Americans know?
possible
yureru omoi - zard (izumi sakai).
she who has sung this song passed away in 2007.. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/izumi_sakai.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=umha4dj4ojk.
Yureru Omoi - ZARD (Izumi Sakai)
She who has sung this song passed away in 2007.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Izumi_Sakai
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=umhA4dJ4OJk
possible
sayonara (good-bye) - off course (kazumasa oda, 1982).
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nkqtuegks1c.
.
Sayonara (Good-bye) - Off Course (Kazumasa Oda, 1982)
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nKqTuegks1c
possible
"ultraman taro".
when i was an elementary school student, i loved this.. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=isvxknm0a2e.
.
"Ultraman Taro"
When I was an elementary school student, I loved this.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IsvxKNM0A2E
possible
we can agree on three things.
1) in exodus 3:13-14 moses asks god his name and who sent him to them.
god says his name is i am that i am.
paulnotsaul.
Thank you for replying.
I'll start off by saying thank-you for your opinions.
I watched that video first of all.
Three things I want to comment on.
Well, I did write my own opinion.
That video is not my own opinion.
If you ask a question to my opinion, for me, it is welcome.
I guess that that video was probably made by one of Jehovah's Witnesses.
Therefore, that video is reflecting not my opinion but the opinion of JWs.
Three things I want to comment on.
1) Where is your source that gods name was taken out of the NT.
Since I did not make that video, I don't know well how I should answer to you.
In my opinion, probably, the Christian in the first century did not pronounce the Divine Name (YHWH).
Therefore, that is not "God's name was taken out of the NT."
Probably, the traditional expression in Greek of the divine name (YHWH) is "Kyrios/Lord."
Since Greek is different from Hebrew, such a phenomenon occurs.
2) In most of the video 'the name' was in a triangle?
In my opinion, I think that that triangle is expressing the "Trinity" well, although I am not a Trinitarian.
If the jews didn't speak the divine name and they were the foundation of gods people, then what makes christians think they can say it so freely?
This is a difficult issue in fact.
In my opinion, I think that the divine name is indirectly being used frequently also in the NT.
That is, it is a mode of expression as the "I AM."
Jesus used this expression frequently. (For instance, "I am (Ego eimi) the light of the world", or, "it is I (Ego eimi)", Matthew 14:27)
http://interlinearbible.org/matthew/14-27.htm
And, possibly, in the NT, the name of "JESUS" may have replaced for "YHWH."
For me, both mean "God presence within."
"When you say "I AM," you are announcing the Presence of God within you."
(Joseph Murphy, Within You Is The Power, Devorss & Co, 1977. p.5)
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=w3M6cboaOKk
possible
we can agree on three things.
1) in exodus 3:13-14 moses asks god his name and who sent him to them.
god says his name is i am that i am.
With regard to the Divine Name, probably, besides Jehovah's Witnesses, many people are also emphasizing.
Please refer to the collection of links on my website.
http://godpresencewithin.web.fc2.com/pages/link/link03.html
Well, In my opinion, the Christian's God is Jahveh/Yahweh/I AM.
And, in my opinion, Jesus used the Tetragrammaton/YHWH.
However, I assume that he followed Jews' tradition ("Qere perpetuum") and pronounced it as "Adonai" (Lord), IMO.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qere_and_Ketiv#Qere_perpetuum
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zSfyJ91vyN4
possible
does anyone here think this command still applies in force today as it did 2000 years ago?.
Wonderment.
Rest be assured, it was not a purposely deceitful citation.
It was plain human error.
Yeah, I see.
But I feel that it is not mere "plain human error."
You meant to probably point out "the incorrect information by me/possible" clearly.
But I thought that that explanation was "strange", when I looked at the material which you quoted.
When I did not know the context of that material, I felt so (strange).
But, you had not noticed that you did make an error.
First of all, since you did not know the difference between the "imperative mood" in Greek, and an "imperative" similar to that , you made such an error.
Other grammarians, though, do mention the effect of the Imperatival hina at Eph. 5:33 For instance, An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek by C.F.D. Moule (Cambridge) had this to say:
"An interesting extension of the final hina is the well-known idiom whereby it becomes practically imperative in sense. [...] ii. He [Cadoux] refers to four widely recognized N.T. instances: Mark v:23...; II Cor. viii. 7...; Eph. v. 33 [he de gune hina phobetai...]; and let the wire revere...; Gal. ii. 10... [...] There are some indications that it would be better in some cases to describe the hina as ‘denoting content’ rather than as imperatival [...] But it is clear enough that in many cases the hina is virtually imperatival." (pp. 144-45)
I feel that your "power of understanding" is poor/weak, although I respect your investigation.
You should check the Scriptures (English Bible versons) which he (Moule) shows there.
Why don't you do that?
Mark v:23http://bible.cc/mark/5-23.htm
KJV
I pray thee, come and lay thy hands on her
Darby
[I pray] that thou shouldest come and lay thy hands upon her
NASB
please come and lay Your hands on her
NIV
Please come and put your hands on her
NWT
Would you please come and put your hands upon her
---------------------------------
II Cor. viii. 7http://bible.cc/2_corinthians/8-7.htm
NRSVso we want you to excel also in this generous undertaking
ISVthe more we want you to be rich in this work of kindness
NLT
I want you to excel also in this gracious act of giving
TLBNow I want you to be leaders also in the spirit of cheerful giving
GNT/TEV
And so we want you to be generous also in this service of love.
GWTthe more we want you to participate in this work of God's kindness
NWT
may YOU also abound in this kind giving
---------------------------
Moreover, interestingly, with regard to 2 Cor 8:7, the Apostle Paul has stated like this in the next verse.
2 Cor 8:8 (NIV)
I am not commanding you,
Well, with regard to 2 Cor 8:7, it is written as follows in the commentary.
"The phrase "see that you also excel in this grace of giving" is hyphenated by the NIV to suggest that a break occurs in the syntactical sequence of the listing of the gifts.
It reads literally, "in order that (hina) you abound in this grace also."
The hina may express expected consequence:
"I am pointing this out so that you may excel in this gracious work too";
a wish or exhortation:
"I wish or exhort that you excel in this gracious work also";
or an alternative form of the imperative as the NIV translates it,
"see that you also excel."
This last option is the best.
Verbrugge argues that Paul uses this construction as "one of the least direct ways that Paul could use to express the imperatival idea."
It "expressed more of a wish than a command, and people who were not in a superior or authoritative position to the recipient of the letter tended to use it."
(Verbrugge, Paul's Style of Church Leadership, 47-51.)
It forms a marked contrast with the simple imperative in 1 Cor 16:1-2:"
(THE NEW AMERICAN COMMENTARY, 2 Corinthians, by David E. Garland, B&H Publishing Group, 1999. p. 374)
http://books.google.com/books?id=v-wIGBC7n5QC&pg=PA374&lpg=PA374&dq=wish+imperative+hina&source=bl&ots=uFCArp19xM&sig=s-ytnOo6vPP6hr88g0UXt5MWF6E&hl=ja&ei=vh5ZTtG4MMPrmAXZmeCVDA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=3&ved=0CCQQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=wish%20imperative%20hina&f=false
You have to understand correctly what I am trying to say.
I said your explanation regarding "a practical imperative" is right/correct, before you quoted from grammars/grammarians many times.
And, also in English, I showed about "injunctive expressions", although it is not the "imperative mood."
That is, "I want you to..." "Will you...?" "Would you...?"
I suppose that you are probably also using these expressions in your daily life.
possible
does anyone here think this command still applies in force today as it did 2000 years ago?.
Wonderment.
On page 486 he adds:
"A number of passages could be easily misunderstood as mere permission in most English translations [...]
The Greek is stronger than a mere option, engaging the volition and placing a requirement on the individual:...
Eph 5:33..."
Since I felt that this explanation in that literature you quoted is strange, I investigated it by myself.
This is an "explanatory note" (footnote) in that book (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, by Daniel B. Wallace).
The Scriptures which he is referring to are as follows.
"1 Tim 4:12", and "Matt 5:31, 37; 11:15; 13:9, 43; 16:24; 18:17; 19:12; Mark 4:9; 8:34; Luke 16:29; Acts 1:20; 2:14; Rom 14:5; 15:11; 1 Cor 1:31; 3:18; 4:1; 7:3, 9 (probable); 11:6; 2 Cor 10:17; Gal 6:4; Eph 5:33; Phil 4:5, 6; Col 2:16; 1 Tim 2:11; 3:10; 4:12; 5:16, 17; Heb 1:6; 13:1; Jas 1:4-6, 9; 5:14, 20; Rev 2:7; 3:22; 13:18."
And, he has stated like this in the text to which this footnote is attached.
"the third person imperative is normally translated Let him do, etc.
This is easily confused in English with a permissive idea.
Its force is more akin to he must, however, or periphrastically, I command him to ...
(Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, by Daniel B. Wallace. p. 486)
That is, he (Daniel B. Wallace) is talking about the "imperative mood."
Therefore, "Eph 5:33" which he referred to is the explanation regarding "agapato" (imperative mood).
I feel that such a deceitful citation is unpardonable.
possible