Think About It:
C'mon.......you're kidding, right?
I seems to me that if one were of the opinion that the Holy Ghost is God, and the name of God is YHWH, then, by extension, the name (or, at least, one name) for the the Holy Ghost would be YHWH.
So, yeah. I'll go with that. That, or Led Zeppelin. :)
Podo:
Podo, podo, podo. Please read through my post s-l-o-w-l-y....
Why are you unable to spell out what you mean...
Podo, I asked you to tell me specifically what you would like me to speak to with regard to the 6 verses you cited. Your response was that I give you "a comment on the Scripture". Which I did. Now it appears that was not what you wanted after all...
How can I 'spell out what I mean' if you won't clarify what you want me to speak to?
how do you know that my own view on the Deity of Christ is different from your own.
How do I "know"? Podo, if you re-read my previous post, you will find that I said I "doubt" our views are the same. Do you understand the difference between "doubting" something and "knowing" something? Again, I feel compelled to ask whether you have some problem with reading comprehension...
clarify who the Father and God of Jesus in Revelation 2:7-12 is
That would be God the Father.
Why is that such a difficult question to answer. To me it is obvious. Jesus (exalted) still has a God and Father...
Who said it was difficult? Besides you, I mean? It's patently obvious that "the Son" has a Father, and that as "the Son", he is subservient to "the Father". If not this, then what do the titles "Father" and "Son" imply to you?
Nothing here speaks to the *nature* of Jesus. That is the issue, podo. What is the nature of Jesus? (A question I asked you several posts ago, which you still have not answered...)
Why the fuss over the obvious?
Honestly, podo, you are the only one I see fussing here...
@djeggnog: Perhaps you can explain to peacedog that the exclamation by Thomas is written in the NOMINATIVE case and no the Vocative.
@peacedog: Perhaps you can explain to podo that what Thomas said was not an "exclamation" at all. Ok, I will. You see Podo, we know that Thomas was not making an "exclamation" for the simple reason that Thomas directed his words to Jesus. An exclamation, as we know, is an abrupt outburst of feeling directed to no one in particular. An examination of the Greek at John 20:28 reveals that in no uncertain terms Thomas said his words "to Jesus":
"Thomas answered [Jesus] and said *to Him*, "My Lord and my God !" (Literal Greek: "the Lord of me and the God of me")
Oh, btw, in the next verse, Jesus commends Thomas for his belief...
"no demeaning language...it is so unnecessary."
Now this is just funny. Aren't you the one who called me a "weasel"? In fact, podo, you're the only one here whose language I would consider "demeaning". Unless bane posted on this thread...
djeggnog:
I will not allow you to change your argument. We were discussing the inclusion of the word "one" in rendering Hebrews 1:5 and Hebrews 1:13 as "which one," and we were never discussing the word "ever," which is not relevant, but which you persist in doing for whatever reason.
You will not allow me to change my argument, huh? That's funny... kinda weird, too... but still funny.
Let's try this:
I have nothing more to say regarding the inclusion of the word "one" in the nwt. My point is that the word is not present in the Greek, and that point has now been made (ad nauseam...).
Please share any concluding remarks you may have regarding the insertion of the word "one" into the nwt so that we may move forward.
After sharing your concluding remarks regarding the inclusion of the word "one", please answer the following question so that we might move forward in our discussion of the Trinity and the nwt:
5For example, to which one of the angels did he ever say: "You are my son; I, today, I have become your father"? And again: "I myself shall become his father, and he himself will become my son"?
13But with reference to which one of the angels has he ever said: "Sit at my right hand, until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet"?
Please explain how the word "ever" fits with (and supports) your interpretation of these verses. Perhaps you might even explain why the bible writer chose to include the word, when you yourself have omitted it when "explaining" the meaning of these verses. Thank you kindly.
Peace.