Scholar
"My careful exegesis which plainly you have not done proves that Jer. 25:11, 2 Chron. 36:17-21; Dan. 9:2 all discuss and link the beginning of the seventy years with the invasion of Nebuchadnezzar with the desolation of Judah, the commencement of the Exile and the nation of Judah under servitude to Babylon all for the period of 70 years."
None of which refer to the destruction of the temple which is what I was asking about. I'll try a third time. Why do you associate the beginning of the period of Babylonian dominance when nations came to serve Babylon, including Judah, with the same date as the destruction of the first temple?
"Jeremiah was not confused as you are because he foretold specific consequences in a judgement message"
But not specific in setting any date which we can discern now, 2,600 years later. That was my point.
"COJ is not known for his humility in relation to his criticism of 607 BCE."
Isn't an answer to the question I asked. I'll try again.
"Isn't admitting to genuine uncertainty over plausible alternative dates a better and more honest approach than proclaiming certainty over an implausible date?"
"Jeremiah . . . the 70 years was quite descriptive and specific and could only have begun with the destruction of the City of Jerusalem, its Temple and Land in Neb;s 18th year and Zedekiah's 11 the regnal year."
How do you reach that conclusion from Jeremiah?
When do you think Daniel went into captivity? Is there any problems with taking a plain and fairly literal reading of Dan 1:1?
You criticized Doug for not proposing an alternative thesis. What is your alternative thesis to explain the body of the secular record? By your own standards, you cannot criticize it without one. Are you proposing a massive conspiracy to replace all the original records with ones portraying a fabricated history or do you have another idea?