No you have that ratio back to front.
'The ratio of heterosexual to homosexual pedophiles was calculated to be approximately 11:1'
Since the ratio of hetrosexual males to heterosexual males in the population is greater than that it means that gay men are over-represented among pedophiles. As the authors are right to point out this does not mean that most gay men have a propensity to pedophila.
I was responding to the assertion made by wasanelder that gay men are 'notoriously NOT gay'.