In the following I will explain why the "ancient world" described by the writer of 2 Peter represents the "world of all ancients," and therefore, the whole of the ancient world, not just the ancients who lived in the "land of Noah," but all ancients who lived in that ancient time.
I will use the same logic aChristian uses.
First, aChristian explains that the "world" in Romans 11:12 below is the "world of all Gentiles":
It should also be here noted that, even when the word "kosmos" is translated as "world" in the New Testament, it often does not refer to the entire world. For instance, though the Greek word "kosmos" is translated as "world" in Rom. 11:12 the context of this verse clearly shows it's writer was using it to refer only to the Gentile world.
Next, aChristian explains that the "world" in John 7:7 below is the "world of all opposers of God":
And Christ himself often used the same word to refer only to a part of the world, the part that stood in opposition to him. For instance, he said, "The world [Greek = kosmos] cannot hate you, but it hates me because I testify that what it does is evil." (John 7:7) The fact is, when the Greek word "kosmos" is translated as "world" in the New Testament it is very often used in a limited way, to refer to the part of our world that remains opposed to God.
Now, let's apply the same reasoning used by aChristian to show that the "world" that the writer referred to in 2 Peter 2:5 is the "world of all ancients":
God …did not spare the ancient world [kosmos] when he brought the flood on its ungodly people (2 Peter 2:5)
Since aChristian showed once before that he would answer questions if I numbered them, I will number the six questions I would like to have him answer.
1. Now, aChristian, if the world in your Romans 11:12 example is the world of all Gentiles, and the world in your John 7:7 example is the world of all opposers of God, then why isn't the world of ancients in my 2 Peter 2:5 example NOT the world of all ancients?
After you've answered this question, aChristian, will you please respond to a question I've asked you four times already, but have not yet received an answer?
Will you address the very important questions relating to what the Bible writers knew? You seem determined not to respond to these questions, and I think the reason is clear: You cannot explain why not a single one of God's writers were inspired or guided by God to explain to Bible readers the following extremely important fact about God's true will and intentions toward the corrupt people of his earth:
God planned to rescind the death penalty levied against all of the people in the "land of Noah," provided they repent--according to you.
2. aChristian, don't you think this fact--if it's true--should be in the Bible, and spelled out in no uncertain terms?
3. Isn't it extremely important for believers to be shown examples of their god being forgiving, and not just ones which show a vengeful, angry god, such as the one who ordered the infants and suckling babes to be killed? What better example of god's intended forgiveness could the Bible writers have described? Why didn't they?
4. Why wouldn't God want to make sure that readers knew he was prepared to let onto the ark anyone in the "land of Noah" who repented, if that was really the case?
5. Also, will you explain why no Bible writer says a single thing about how the great effort expended in building such a huge ark was in vain--according to you? It was mostly empty--according to you--because the great horde of sinners God hoped would repent and show up at the ark to be saved never repented. All those folks God had hoped he could use to repopulate the earth never showed up! Why does no Bible writer tell us this?
6. Do you really think that this is the type of information God would not have wanted to make absolutely certain was in his Bible, if it were true? If so, why?
Joseph F. Alward
"Skeptical Views of Christianity and the Bible"
http://members.aol.com/jalw/joseph_alward.html