@jonathan dough:
Whereas the great majority of Bibles interpret John 1:1 as "...the Word was God," the New World Translation claims the "Word was a god," thereby denying the deity of Christ.... Christ's identifying himself as the I AM and deity is changed to "I have been" at John 8:58.
How exactly does rendering John 1:1c ("... the Word was a god") deny Jesus' deity?
@WontLeave:
"I am" is not a title or a name, it's just the way the KJV translated a Greek phrase in one of its many attempts to establish the Trinitarian doctrine of the Church of England. This is why Trinitarians love the KJV; because it was "translated" by rabid Trinitarians. Of all the evidence presented for the Trinity doctrine, this one is far and away the most ridiculous and stupid.... Trinitarian doctrine being shoehorned into John 8:58 is a gross violation of the original meaning. The idea that Jesus was trying to identify himself as "the I Am", as if there is such a thing is preposterous and just plain silly....
The TEV form of John 8:58 strays from normal English usage.... [I]t puts the subject after the predicate, which is not the normal word order of English sentences, and it mixes a present tense verb with a past tense verb in a totally ungrammatical construction.... - Truth in Translation, by Jason [BeDuhn]
Professor Jason D. BeDuhn, a Greek scholar and associate professor of religious studies at Northern Arizona University, posted the following regarding @jonathan dough's objection to the NWT's rendering of John 1:1c (slightly edited):
The Greek phrase is "theos en ho logos," which translated word for word is "a god was the word." Greek has only a definite article, like our "the," it does not have an [indefinite] article, like our "a" or "an." If a noun is definite, it has the definite article "ho." If a noun is indefinite, no article is used. In the phrase from John 1:1, "ho logos" is "the word." If it was written simply "logos," without the definite article "ho," we would have to translate it as "a word."
So we are not really "inserting" an indefinite article when we translate Greek nouns without the definite article into English, we are simply obeying rules of English grammar that tell us that we cannot say "Snoopy is dog," but must say "Snoopy is a dog." Now in English we simply say "God"; we do not say "The God." But in Greek, when you mean to refer to the one supreme God, instead of one of the many other beings that were called "gods," you would have to say "The God": "ho theos." Even a monotheistic Christian, who [believes] there is only one God and no others, would be forced to say in Greek "The God," as John and Paul and the other writers of the New Testament normally do. If you leave off the article in a phrase like John 1:1, then you are saying "a god."
(There are some exceptions to this rule: Greek has what are called noun cases, which means the nouns change form depending on how they are used in a sentence. So, if you want to say "of God," which is "theou," you don't need the article. But in the nominative case, which is the one in John 1:1, you have to have the article.) So what does John mean by saying "the word was a god"? He is classifying Jesus in a specific category of beings. There are plants and animals and humans and gods, and so on.
By calling the Word "a god," John wants to tell his readers that the Word (which becomes Jesus when it takes flesh) belongs to the divine class of things. Notice the word order: "a god was the word." We can't say it like this in English, but you can in Greek. The subject can be after the verb and the object before the verb, the opposite of how we do it in English (subject-verb-object). Research has shown that when ancient Greek writers put a object-noun first in a sentence like John 1:1 (a "be"-verb sentence: "x" is "y"), without the definite article, they are telling us that the subject belongs to the class represented by the object-noun: "The car is a Volkswagen."
In English we would accomplish the same thing by using what we call predicate adjectives. "John is a smart person" = "John is smart." So we would tend to say "The word was divine," rather than "The word was a god." That is how I would translate this phrase.
"The word was a god" is more literal, and an improvement over "The word was God," but it raises more problems, since to a modern reader it implies polytheism. No one in John's day would have understood the phrase to mean "The word was God" - the language does not convey that sense, and conceptually it is difficult to grasp such an idea, especially since that author has just said that the word was with God. Someone is not with himself, he is with some other. John clearly differentiates between God from the Word.
As to the point you make regarding the NWT's rendering of John 8:58, I concur, @WontLeave, and so would Dr. BeDuhn as well. At John 8:58, Jesus was merely responding to the question that urged his response regarding his age when compared to Abraham's. (John 8:56) Jesus had just told the Pharisees, "Abraham ... rejoiced greatly in the prospect of seeing my day," for he put faith in God's promise to make Abraham "a great nation ... and all the families of the ground will certainly bless themselves" "by means of your seed." (Genesis 12:2, 3; 22:18) This is what Jesus meant and it is apparent that @jonathan dough doesn't appreciate at all what Jesus was really saying at John 8:58.
@palmtree67:
This is a perfect example of why I love this forum. No JW does this kind of research, because they are not allowed to look at outside sources. Or even THINK for themselves.
I suppose I would have to know what you mean when you used the word "research" in your post. Do you have any clue as to the extent of the "research" that was done by @FollowedMyHeart? It is apparent to me that you didn't take care to read with care what it was @FollowedMyHeart actually wrote, but I have three (3) clues as to the kind of research that was done. First, there was at least a video involved in the "kind of research" that @FollowedMyHeart produced by Non Stamp Collector (NSC):
I watched Non Stamp Collector's Jephthah video and it didn't go according to the story, so I thought.
Second, @FollowedMyHeart tells us how she went on to read the comments about this video:
I checked the comments on the video expecting to see others complain that he had gotten it wrong. What I found was NSC stating that he had done research etc.
Lastly, @FollowedMyHeart tells us what her conclusions were after she had reviewed the rendering of Judges 11:35 and Judges 11:40 in the NWT with four (4) other Bible translations, the NIV, NASB, NLT and NKJB:
In verse 35, ostracizing is added. Ostracizing is something very different from troubling, devastating, or bringing disaster upon! It is obviously added to help change the story.
Which story is then carried out in verse 40 by saying the the young women would go to give commendation to his daughter. She wasn't dead at all! NO HUMAN SACRIFICE HERE!!!! That, however, is VERY different from commemorating or lamenting her, which makes it obvious that the story states that Jephthah did, in fact, offer his daughter as a BURNT OFFERING!
So now I understand that in order to thank Jah of Armies for His help in killing the Ammonites, Jephthah killed and burnt his daughter!
The mention of "a burnt offering" at Judges 11:31 ("the one coming out, who comes out of the doors of my house to meet me when I return in peace from the sons of Am'mon, must also become Jehovah's, and I must offer that one up as a burnt offering") is clearly just a figure of speech, for we Judges 11:39, 40, says that "And it came to be a regulation in Israel: From year to year the daughters of Israel would go to give commendation to the daughter of Jeph´thah the Gil´e·ad·ite, four days in the year," which means that not only was Jephthah's daughter not offered up as a human sacrifice, "a burnt offering," but that her willingness to accept the vow made by her father to devote herself to Jehovah's service was commemorated "from year to year ... four days in the year," which "regulation" would not have been a "year to year" event had Jephthah's daughter been dead, offered up as a burnt sacrifice! Jehovah didn't permit Abraham to offer up his only-begotten son to prove his faith, and neither would He permit Jephthah to offer up his only-begotten daughter in keeping with what he had vowed to Jehovah. Jehovah is not less than a man that He would be so stupid as to believe that what Jephthah had vowed to Him wasn't just a figure of speech!
The NIV translates the Hebrew word _akar_ at Judges 11:35 as "devastated," while the NLT use "brought disaster," while both the NASB and NKJV decide to use "trouble" here. My question is, do you even know why the word "ostracize," used in the NWT, is more appropriate? One meaning of the word "ostracize" is to shun someone, but another meaning of the word "ostracize" is to "expel from a community or group," "to drive out," "to oust" or "to dismiss," and, in this case, because 'the one coming out of the doors of his house to meet him upon his return from his fighting against the Ammonites' happened to be Jeththah's own daughter, it turned out that she was the one that Jephthah was "ostracizing," the one that it turned out he was ousting, driving out, dismissing from his household in accord with his vow to Jehovah. A similar Hebrew word _garash_ is used by Abraham's wife, Sarah, at Genesis 21:10, when she decided that Hagar's son, Ishmael, who was also Abraham's wife, wasn't going to become an heir with Isaac. (Genesis 21:10)
I'm pretty sure that like most Jehovah's Witnesses, born-ins or not, @FollowedMyHeart didn't do any real research, and that she based her conclusions on her own understanding of the Scriptures (Proverbs 3:5), and on her own understanding of the meaning of the English-language words she read in these five Bible translations, words that she really didn't understand. Most Jehovah's Witnesses, born-ins or not, tend to think of Hagar as being the Egyptian woman that became Sarah's maidservant by whom Abraham's first child, Ishmael, was born.
It comes as a surprise to many Jehovah's Witnesses, born-in or not, to learn that Hagar, although her status had changed so that she became Abraham's secondary wife, remained Sarah's slave girl (Genesis 16:9), because they don't really think of a concubine as being a wife, nor have they, for the 20, 30, 40, 50 years that they have been Jehovah's Witnesses, born-ins or not, done more than half-read the Bible and half-read our publications that point out what Genesis 16:3 clearly states: That Sarah, Abraham's beloved wife, gave Hagar to "her husband as his wife," and that later both she and Ishmael were summarily ostracized, ousted, driven out, dismissed from Abraham's household.
Do some real research into the meaning of the Hebrew words _akar_ used at Judges 11:35 and _garash_ used at Genesis 21:10. Leah's concubine Zilpah to whom sons #7 and #8, Gad and Asher, respectively, were born, and Rachel's concubine Bilhah to whom sons #5 and #6, Dan and Naphtali, respectively, were born, were both, as were Leah and Rachel, also Jacob's wives, all four of them. Otherwise it would have to be said that these four children of Jacob's would instead have been "sons of fornication" and the Jews would have been sons "born of fornication." (Hosea 2:4; John 8:41)
Perhaps I'm only pretending to be providing scholarly information, @FollowedMyHeart. Why not do some real research and prove than I am just making things up here.
I would at least give heed though to @WontLeave's post. If the extent of your knowledge is based upon someone else's research, something you may have read in WTS publications, and a knowledge of the US English lexicon, then your research will be incomplete since all English-language Bible translators have made decisions in their translations as to which English language words they will use to translate the Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek text, and research will more than adequately reveal this fact to you.
@djeggnog