Posts by Abraham1

4

Why does the Lord always want to take his fury against innocent animals?

by RULES & REGULATIONS in

genesis 6. .

5 the lord saw how great the wickedness of the human race had become on the earth, and that every inclination of the thoughts of the human heart was only evil all the time.

6 the lord regretted that he had made human beings on the earth, and his heart was deeply troubled.

Abraham1

Not because God of OT is different from God of NT but because

Bible contains all sorts of characters—good and bad. So are its writers—good and bad.

God-dishonoring writers added such accounts which depict God as killer of humans and animals, and were so thoughtless that they added such accounts in Genesis Chapter 6, immediately after Genesis 5 where we read “God made mankind in HIS IMAGE.” (Genesis 5:1) In contrast, God-honoring writers wrote such things as Isaiah 66:3-4; Mathew 5:43-48; 10:29-31 etc.

God-dishonoring writers will have their agenda, and are thoughtless too. For example, immediately after saying things such as “With the measure you use, it will be measured to you” (Luke 6:38) we find Jesus is shown as supposedly declaring things such as Luke 7:26-28 contradicting himself and all known logic:

John the Baptist is not merely a prophet, but “more than a prophet.” (Luke 7:26)

“Among those born of women there is no one greater than John; yet the one who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he.” (Luke 7:28)

In effect, it is like a king saying about a person: “This man is more than a father to me, but in my new palace which I am constructing now, he will be treated less than a house-servant.” What ingratitude it is, what logic it is!!!

And thoughtless interpreters would interpret it as saying “This is the proof that Jesus spoke of two different hopes—HEAVENLY and EARTHLY—and John the Baptist has only earthly hope, not heavenly hope.”

Thus agenda is implemented--two HOPES were introduced—Jesus as the first fruit to the heavenly hope and his chosen 144000 as belonging to “Kingdom of Heaven,” and all others as belonging to earthly hope called “Kingdom of God.”

This teaching belongs to God-dishonoring writers because Jesus taught both “Kingdom of God” and “Kingdom of Heaven” as one and the same, both are used interchangeably. (Mathew 19:23-24; 11:11; Luke 7:28) It is “Kingdom of Heaven” because the one who “restores and renews” is God the Father in the Heavens. (Mathew 6:9; 19:28; Acts 3:21) Its effects are enjoyed by people of “restored and renewed earth” hence its “Kingdom of God.” (Revelation 21:1, 5)

This only shows serpent is not one-time occurrence as shown in Genesis 3, but it is continuous. (1 Thessalonians 5:21)

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

Doubting Thomas,

You said "We're judged tru our works with GRACE."

Paul is free to contradict what Jesus said.

But readers are free to reject it like Jesus (Mathew 19:4-8)

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

Doubting Thomas,

Jesus taught everyone would be judged according to his works (Mathew 5:22, 29; 7:2; 12:32; 23:12; 25:31-46; 26:52; Luke 6:38) (Revelation 22:11, 12)

These verses rule out GRACE which apostle Paul taught as "his gospel." (Romans 2:16)

If GRACe is true, Jesus would NOT have said:

“Enter through the narrow gate. For wide is the gate and broad is the road that leads to destruction, and many enter through it. But small is the gate and narrow the road that leads to life, and only a few find it.” (Mathew 7:13, 14)

Later Jesus explained “narrow gate” as simple life with more importance on spirituality, with what is just enough for the sustenance—may be what is enough for one generation. (Mathew 8:20; 16:24) Interestingly, Jesus was not punishment-oriented: To the question ‘What would be the reward if one renounces something in the interest of God,’ Jesus said: Such ones “will get a hundred times as much at the renewal of all things and will inherit eternal life. But many who are first will be last, and many who are last will be first.” (Mathew 19:27-30)

True Christianity is what Jesus taught. What Paul taught was the fulfillment of what Jesus foretold in Mathew 13:24-30)

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

I already told you--subject of woman was just one example out of many contradictions. Hence you should not have brought it again as I told you "if you don't like this one , take other examples of contradictions such as "works vs grace."

Since you brought it, I will point out your misunderstanding about it.

Luke 6:13 says “And when it was day, he called unto him his disciples: and of them he chose twelve, whom also he named apostles.” The word used for apostle is ἀποστόλους (apostolous) which only means “delegate.” It was mistakenly thought to be a position of authority by others which is not the fault of Jesus. Jesus meant them to excel in unselfish service with no expectation. (Luke 22:24-26)

Interestingly, apostles were all married and they were all accompanying them in ministry. (1 Corinthians 9:5) Luke 10:1 says: “After this the Lord appointed seventy-two[a] others and sent them two by two ahead of him to every town and place where he was about to go.” When this is read with 1 Corinthians 9:5 it would mean Jesus sent them as couple, husband and wife, as equal partners, as God originally meant them to be. (Genesis 5:1; Mathew 19:4-6)

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

Woman is not my subject. I was only answering to your question whether I believe in Bible or not, and I answered.

In connection with how Paul contradicted Jesus, I pointed one example. If you don't like this, you can take another example such as grace Paul highlighted in contrast to works Jesus highlighted.

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

Doubting Thomas,

I believe "All inspired Scriptures."

See the difference in Translations:

Serious Translations of the Bible say ""All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice." (2 Timothy, 3 - verse 16) (2 Timothy 3:16)

Many other Translations put it: “all Scriptures are inspired.”

The latter doesn't do justice to the Greek Interlinear.

It is like saying "All humans are righteous and trustworthy." And

"All righteous humans are trustworthy."

Most of the writings of Paul are in flat contradiction to what Jesus taught, hence it is his own.

For example,
Jesus had God’s view with regard to women as equal to men. (Genesis 5:1) He chose to reveal the most important spiritual truths to a woman who was from a “low” caste community called Samaritans. (John 4) He declared that projection of woman as inferior was the result of “hardheartedness” of some ancient men, which obviously has nothing to do with Scriptures. (Mathew 19:4-8) He praised woman as having keener insight into future and spirituality than men (Mathew 26:10-13 Contrast John 6:60) and appointed woman to impart vital spiritual truth to men. (John 20:16-18)

In contrast, Paul’s view of woman (as a creature to be silent and a machine for pregnancy) fits with the need of Church dominated by male superiority. (1 Corinthians 14:34) Hence Church wanted a person like Paul to sound its doctrines to be inspired, as coming via Paul, from Jesus.

15

Another example of how Watchtower are rewriting their own history.

by skin in

from today's daily wt text.. friday, december 31 2021.let your kingdom come.

let your will take place, as in heaven, also on earth.—matt.

6:10. christendom generally does not teach the scriptural truth that one day obedient humans will live forever on earth.

Abraham1

Though Rutherford was wrong on many counts, this is something he got right because Jesus had used "Kingdom of heavens" and "Kingdom of God" interchangeably. (Mathew 5:3, 5; 19:23, 24)

https://www.jehovahs-witness.com/topic/5654969410650112/there-no-heavenly-calling-wishful-thinking-jws

13

MY GOSPEL

by pistolpete in

has anyone ever read the new testament- critically- and not theologically?

by theologically i mean not reading the bible with the intention of understanding the nature of god and religious truth.

but instead, reading the bible by analyzing only the facts of what is written, in an unbiased frame of mind to pull out what is actually happening in the written stories.. first of all, if you were to read the nt in chronological order, paul’s 7 authentic letters would come before the gospels of matthew, mark, luke, and john.

Abraham1

pistolpete

That was a wonderful Christmas Gift! You have nailed it beyond doubt—Paul was teaching a different Gospel. He did not remain in teachings of Jesus. (Mathew 13:24-30)

Jesus had God’s view with regard to women as equal to men. (Genesis 5:1) He chose to reveal the most important spiritual truths to a woman who was from a “low” caste community called Samaritans. (John 4) He declared that projection of woman as inferior was the result of “hardheartedness” of some ancient men, which obviously has nothing to do with Scriptures. (Mathew 19:4-8) He praised woman as having keener insight into future and spirituality than men (Mathew 26:10-13 Contrast John 6:60) and appointed woman to impart vital spiritual truth to men. (John 20:16-18)

In contrast, Paul’s view of woman (as a creature to be silent and a machine for pregnancy) fits with the need of Church dominated by male superiority. (1 Corinthians 14:34) Hence Church wanted a person like Paul to sound its doctrines to be inspired, as coming via Paul, from Jesus.

21

wt white washes david again why?

by waton in

in today's wt "study, "merci" a lot of gaslighting.

on one hand: you will be judged the way you are judging, but twice "david" is seen as needlessly killing or intending to kill people for minor transgression, .

1) getting ready to kill nabel, all males not paying his extortion fees, and .

Abraham1

Watson,

Verses and accounts can be invented. For example, Mark 16:9-20; 1 John 5:7. All prophets were advocates of Law of Sow and Reap. (Isaiah 3:10, 11; Mark 4:24; Galatians 5:7 …etc.) Such teachings make existence of religions unnecessary but religions want a God who forgives. Hence they wanted characters who are known for their spirituality but occasionally fall into sin—hence David’s sins were to be invented—just like account in John 8:2-11 was invented. (My Favorite Passage that’s Not in the Bible)

Even very big subject too can be invented https://www.jehovahs-witness.com/topic/5654969410650112/there-no-heavenly-calling-wishful-thinking-jws

New Covenant of NT has nothing to do with its supposed basis in Jeremiah 31:31-34, hence a new teaching.

21

wt white washes david again why?

by waton in

in today's wt "study, "merci" a lot of gaslighting.

on one hand: you will be judged the way you are judging, but twice "david" is seen as needlessly killing or intending to kill people for minor transgression, .

1) getting ready to kill nabel, all males not paying his extortion fees, and .

Abraham1

Here too there is a choice between what God Himself says and what his envious contemporaries say;

1)God, through His prophet told King Jeroboam: “You have not been like my servant David, who kept my commands and followed me with all his heart, doing only what was right in my eyes”—1 King 14:8

King Jeroboam “did more evil than all who lived before him.” “‘Because of this, I am going to bring disaster on the house of Jeroboam. I will cut off from Jeroboam every last male in Israel—slave or free.[a] I will burn up the house of Jeroboam as one burns dung, until it is all gone”—but except one body who “ the only one belonging to Jeroboam who will be buried, because he is the only one in the house of Jeroboam in whom the Lord, the God of Israel, has found anything good. ( 1 King 14:9, 10, 13)

2) David’s envious contemporaries say David is blood-guilty, committed adultery etc