Regarding a pagan, Jesus said: "When Jesus heard this, he was amazed and said to those following him, “Truly I tell you, I have not found anyone in Israel with such great faith. " (Mathew 8:10) Such instances are there at least four numbers--showing they are only sample and Jesus consistently praised good wherever it was found--whether it is pagan or not.
Abraham1
JoinedPosts by Abraham1
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Watchtower talking bad about other religions
by asp59 indo you remember the time when every watchtower article seemed like a boasting session?
how great watchtower was.
they we're the only one with holy spirit.
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Abraham1
But JWs can never even think of doing such a thing! -
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Why does the Lord always want to take his fury against innocent animals?
by RULES & REGULATIONS ingenesis 6. .
5 the lord saw how great the wickedness of the human race had become on the earth, and that every inclination of the thoughts of the human heart was only evil all the time.
6 the lord regretted that he had made human beings on the earth, and his heart was deeply troubled.
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Abraham1
Sea Breeze,
When asked "Why did you break Sabbath?"
Jesus defended it saying “My Father worketh until now; and I work.” (John 5:16-17) God and Jesus worked all the days, which means Jesus was not aware of Genesis Account that describes a God who works six days and takes rest on seventh day. Concept of Sabath was later adoption. Yet Jesus did refer to what is given in Genesis 5:1 which says “God ‘made them male and female.” (Mark 10:6) Jesus upheld the SIMULTANEOUS making of mankind in “God’s image, as male and female”—not the God-dishonorng account of making woman out of rib out of man! God would never inspire an account which indirectly conveys the patriarchal mind-set—especially so when God Himself refers to Himself as woman and also as Father. (Deuteronomy 32:18; Isaiah 63:16; Mathew 6:9)That means Jesus is not aware of a story that tells we became sinners because of first Adam, which requires second Adam, Jesus, should die on our behalf. Compare John 5:24; 1 John 2:17. -
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Why does the Lord always want to take his fury against innocent animals?
by RULES & REGULATIONS ingenesis 6. .
5 the lord saw how great the wickedness of the human race had become on the earth, and that every inclination of the thoughts of the human heart was only evil all the time.
6 the lord regretted that he had made human beings on the earth, and his heart was deeply troubled.
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Abraham1
Not because God of OT is different from God of NT but because
Bible contains all sorts of characters—good and bad. So are its writers—good and bad.
God-dishonoring writers added such accounts which depict God as killer of humans and animals, and were so thoughtless that they added such accounts in Genesis Chapter 6, immediately after Genesis 5 where we read “God made mankind in HIS IMAGE.” (Genesis 5:1) In contrast, God-honoring writers wrote such things as Isaiah 66:3-4; Mathew 5:43-48; 10:29-31 etc.
God-dishonoring writers will have their agenda, and are thoughtless too. For example, immediately after saying things such as “With the measure you use, it will be measured to you” (Luke 6:38) we find Jesus is shown as supposedly declaring things such as Luke 7:26-28 contradicting himself and all known logic:
John the Baptist is not merely a prophet, but “more than a prophet.” (Luke 7:26)
“Among those born of women there is no one greater than John; yet the one who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he.” (Luke 7:28)
In effect, it is like a king saying about a person: “This man is more than a father to me, but in my new palace which I am constructing now, he will be treated less than a house-servant.” What ingratitude it is, what logic it is!!!
And thoughtless interpreters would interpret it as saying “This is the proof that Jesus spoke of two different hopes—HEAVENLY and EARTHLY—and John the Baptist has only earthly hope, not heavenly hope.”
Thus agenda is implemented--two HOPES were introduced—Jesus as the first fruit to the heavenly hope and his chosen 144000 as belonging to “Kingdom of Heaven,” and all others as belonging to earthly hope called “Kingdom of God.”
This teaching belongs to God-dishonoring writers because Jesus taught both “Kingdom of God” and “Kingdom of Heaven” as one and the same, both are used interchangeably. (Mathew 19:23-24; 11:11; Luke 7:28) It is “Kingdom of Heaven” because the one who “restores and renews” is God the Father in the Heavens. (Mathew 6:9; 19:28; Acts 3:21) Its effects are enjoyed by people of “restored and renewed earth” hence its “Kingdom of God.” (Revelation 21:1, 5)
This only shows serpent is not one-time occurrence as shown in Genesis 3, but it is continuous. (1 Thessalonians 5:21)
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New World Translation is not much different other translations
by Abraham1 inkey scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.
such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.
apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.
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Abraham1
Doubting Thomas,
You said "We're judged tru our works with GRACE."
Paul is free to contradict what Jesus said.
But readers are free to reject it like Jesus (Mathew 19:4-8)
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New World Translation is not much different other translations
by Abraham1 inkey scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.
such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.
apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.
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Abraham1
Doubting Thomas,
True Christianity is what Jesus taught. What Paul taught was the fulfillment of what Jesus foretold in Mathew 13:24-30)Jesus taught everyone would be judged according to his works (Mathew 5:22, 29; 7:2; 12:32; 23:12; 25:31-46; 26:52; Luke 6:38) (Revelation 22:11, 12)
These verses rule out GRACE which apostle Paul taught as "his gospel." (Romans 2:16)
If GRACe is true, Jesus would NOT have said:
“Enter through the narrow gate. For wide is the gate and broad is the road that leads to destruction, and many enter through it. But small is the gate and narrow the road that leads to life, and only a few find it.” (Mathew 7:13, 14)
Later Jesus explained “narrow gate” as simple life with more importance on spirituality, with what is just enough for the sustenance—may be what is enough for one generation. (Mathew 8:20; 16:24) Interestingly, Jesus was not punishment-oriented: To the question ‘What would be the reward if one renounces something in the interest of God,’ Jesus said: Such ones “will get a hundred times as much at the renewal of all things and will inherit eternal life. But many who are first will be last, and many who are last will be first.” (Mathew 19:27-30)
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New World Translation is not much different other translations
by Abraham1 inkey scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.
such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.
apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.
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Abraham1
I already told you--subject of woman was just one example out of many contradictions. Hence you should not have brought it again as I told you "if you don't like this one , take other examples of contradictions such as "works vs grace."Since you brought it, I will point out your misunderstanding about it.Luke 6:13 says “And when it was day, he called unto him his disciples: and of them he chose twelve, whom also he named apostles.” The word used for apostle is ἀποστόλους (apostolous) which only means “delegate.” It was mistakenly thought to be a position of authority by others which is not the fault of Jesus. Jesus meant them to excel in unselfish service with no expectation. (Luke 22:24-26)
Interestingly, apostles were all married and they were all accompanying them in ministry. (1 Corinthians 9:5) Luke 10:1 says: “After this the Lord appointed seventy-two[a] others and sent them two by two ahead of him to every town and place where he was about to go.” When this is read with 1 Corinthians 9:5 it would mean Jesus sent them as couple, husband and wife, as equal partners, as God originally meant them to be. (Genesis 5:1; Mathew 19:4-6)
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New World Translation is not much different other translations
by Abraham1 inkey scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.
such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.
apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.
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Abraham1
Woman is not my subject. I was only answering to your question whether I believe in Bible or not, and I answered.
In connection with how Paul contradicted Jesus, I pointed one example. If you don't like this, you can take another example such as grace Paul highlighted in contrast to works Jesus highlighted.
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New World Translation is not much different other translations
by Abraham1 inkey scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.
such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.
apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.
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Abraham1
Doubting Thomas,
I believe "All inspired Scriptures."
See the difference in Translations:
Serious Translations of the Bible say ""All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice." (2 Timothy, 3 - verse 16) (2 Timothy 3:16)
Many other Translations put it: “all Scriptures are inspired.”
The latter doesn't do justice to the Greek Interlinear.
It is like saying "All humans are righteous and trustworthy." And
"All righteous humans are trustworthy."
Most of the writings of Paul are in flat contradiction to what Jesus taught, hence it is his own.
For example,
Jesus had God’s view with regard to women as equal to men. (Genesis 5:1) He chose to reveal the most important spiritual truths to a woman who was from a “low” caste community called Samaritans. (John 4) He declared that projection of woman as inferior was the result of “hardheartedness” of some ancient men, which obviously has nothing to do with Scriptures. (Mathew 19:4-8) He praised woman as having keener insight into future and spirituality than men (Mathew 26:10-13 Contrast John 6:60) and appointed woman to impart vital spiritual truth to men. (John 20:16-18)In contrast, Paul’s view of woman (as a creature to be silent and a machine for pregnancy) fits with the need of Church dominated by male superiority. (1 Corinthians 14:34) Hence Church wanted a person like Paul to sound its doctrines to be inspired, as coming via Paul, from Jesus.
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Another example of how Watchtower are rewriting their own history.
by skin infrom today's daily wt text.. friday, december 31 2021.let your kingdom come.
let your will take place, as in heaven, also on earth.—matt.
6:10. christendom generally does not teach the scriptural truth that one day obedient humans will live forever on earth.
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Abraham1
Though Rutherford was wrong on many counts, this is something he got right because Jesus had used "Kingdom of heavens" and "Kingdom of God" interchangeably. (Mathew 5:3, 5; 19:23, 24)
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MY GOSPEL
by pistolpete inhas anyone ever read the new testament- critically- and not theologically?
by theologically i mean not reading the bible with the intention of understanding the nature of god and religious truth.
but instead, reading the bible by analyzing only the facts of what is written, in an unbiased frame of mind to pull out what is actually happening in the written stories.. first of all, if you were to read the nt in chronological order, paul’s 7 authentic letters would come before the gospels of matthew, mark, luke, and john.
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Abraham1
pistolpete
That was a wonderful Christmas Gift! You have nailed it beyond doubt—Paul was teaching a different Gospel. He did not remain in teachings of Jesus. (Mathew 13:24-30)
Jesus had God’s view with regard to women as equal to men. (Genesis 5:1) He chose to reveal the most important spiritual truths to a woman who was from a “low” caste community called Samaritans. (John 4) He declared that projection of woman as inferior was the result of “hardheartedness” of some ancient men, which obviously has nothing to do with Scriptures. (Mathew 19:4-8) He praised woman as having keener insight into future and spirituality than men (Mathew 26:10-13 Contrast John 6:60) and appointed woman to impart vital spiritual truth to men. (John 20:16-18)
In contrast, Paul’s view of woman (as a creature to be silent and a machine for pregnancy) fits with the need of Church dominated by male superiority. (1 Corinthians 14:34) Hence Church wanted a person like Paul to sound its doctrines to be inspired, as coming via Paul, from Jesus.