TEC
Peter speaks to the gentiles after that... of course he does...
mP:
Can you give another example where he does or where he gives a comment to cmmand others to preach to gentiles ?
TEC
Paul calls him on his hypocrisy when Peter stops eating with gentiles when Jews are around , since when other Jews are not around, Peter ate and lived with Gentiles as one of them.
mP:
How cna you say Peter was preaching to gentiles when he wouldnt eat with them. Eatting in many communities is the time when families, friends and guests talk. if Peter cant eat with gentiles then they will hardly listen to such an arrogant man who refuses their hospitality.
I dont think im inventing anything at all, im the one being fair dinkum.
TEC
And you are adding to the text, mP, in stating that Peter was in no position to refuse Cornelius because of Cornelius position. Cornelious and all of his friends and family were Gentiles, period.
mP:
And why is my position wrong ?
TEC
Peter went to them because of Christ, not because of whoever Cornelius might be.
MP:
Well the simple reasoning that Cornelius was in a positio nof power is much easier to believe than some supernatural claim.
TEC
Again, Israel FIRST... then when Israel rejected the invitation from Christ, that invitation OPENED to all others. "I have other sheep who are not of this pen"... shows that Christ DID talk to them about it, but they did not yet understand.
MP:
Yes we all know the story of Abraham, but you fail to address the cruetly, and racism with this direction. How cruel forget the rest of manking because Abraham was the friend of God some past distant ancestor. Is this any different from comdemning black people to slavery supposedly because Canaan saw Noah naked ? Even if he did, why should black people much later be punished for this ?
TEC
You are also missing this from the end of Matthew:
"Therefore go and make disciples of ALL NATIONS.. ."
mP:
Im not denying this scripture, however as i have stated jesus example and speachs where he tells the opposite outnumber this.
So why did jesus teach the opposite for th emajority of his time ? Why did Peter some how only remember to only preach to jews and not know about mat 24:14 ? Was Peter stupid or is Mat 24:14 a later invention ? Luke, Mark and John dont tell us anything like that because Matt made it up.
TEC
The end of Mark
"Go into all the world and preach the good news to ALL creation ."
mP:
Everything aafter16:8 is an insertion. Jesus never said that.
TEC
The end of Luke:
"This is what is written: The Christs will suffere and rise from the dead on the third day, and repentance and forgiveness of sins will be preached in his name to all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. "
MP:
Chrsits with an "S" ? Was Luke writing about more than one ?