RE:
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Hello, Kepler...
Here is a comment from my book about how the Governing Body has changed the meaning of “the end of the Gentile Times” from referring to the literal end of their rule in 1914 to their rule being invisibly interrupted in 1914 by an invisible Jesus Christ who was invisibly present as he was being invisibly enthroned to begin his invisible rule from the invisible heavens.”
How do Jehovah’s Witnesses know that all these invisible events occurred in 1914? They have no problem accepting this explanation because it comes from what they believe to be God’s visible organization. “
As long as Witnesses believe the Society is God’s organization they don’t need any proof of the above invisible events.
Don
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Don,
So long as we are not spoiling this for potential readers - and you decide- When did everyone at Kingdom Hall come to realize this?
I mean, with General Relativity, say, in 1919 Eddington does an observation of a star's light bent in proximity to or prior to occultation by the sun. The change in angle is double what Newtonian physics predicted, but about right for General Relativity, given observational difficulties. The announcement is read in scientific conferences where, in one instance, Einstein happens to be lecturing - and there was supposedly applause.
Now analogously, how was this supposed to have occurred with Christ's return and selection of the pre-Jehovah's Witnesses organization to displace all earthly authority? The war had been going on since late June when Russell said in October that, yes, this is the one and then added it that the war was final and God's irrevocable decision for which prayer of reversal should not be considered. Shouldn't there have been a "telegram" about the "Archduke" if this was an invisible event observed?
And in 1919? Why the administrative delay? The 144,000 weren't in their celestial offices for the review? And how long did it take to get the word out? Wouldn't it have helped if that were well understood earlier? Why keep it a secret? Am I even getting the gist of this story right?
And still, if it happened in 1919 rather than one of the earlier years, what invisible observation was observed? Or is this another tea-leaves reading of scripture that hadn't occurred earlier? Could it not have occurred until after Rutherford had corporate control?
To tell the truth, most of the argument I had seen for a 1914 end or return ( your choice) was based on Russell's books and then a lot of that was based on his supposed measurements of pyramid passages, revised as required by calendar passage. This argument was subsequently denounced by Rutherford in the late 20s as not only in error but Satanic.
And then when anyone does the math on 1914 and Jerusalem's destruction, plus the the re-calculation of lunar eclipses during the reign of Nebuchadnezzar with a PC-based software, or resorts to Babylonian records cut in stone...
K