Why are they comparing a rape story from the Bible to premarital sex? The two scenarios are not similar at all. One is about violence and the other is about consenting adults who want to have sex.
I don't like the way they keep describing the victim as beautiful Tamar and lovely Tamar. What are they implying, that it was partly her fault for being attractive?
Why do they describe the rape as violating her virginity. Wouldn't it have been so bad if she hadn't been a virgin? Are they saying two consenting young people raised as JWs having sex are violating the girl's virginity? Stupid, there's nothing precious about virginity, what an ancient, out-dated belief.