MeanMrMustard
That is the most unnatural reading, basically a non-sequitor. It doesn't follow. The 70 years of servitude could not continue past the fall of the government that they applied to. Illogical. For you to say "this could only be at the return of the Jews" is nonsense.
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There is nothing unnatural about reading carefully what is stated in Jer.25:12
-Yes, and it was ongoing at the time 25:11 was written, as referenced by v18. It was 70 years of servitude, which had gotten its start before the destruction as a vassal state.
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Impossible for the land was not in a desolate state at that time but only after the Fall in 607 BCE
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Logical fallacy - appeal to authority. But irrelevant anyway.
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Simply responding to your false claim
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No, scholar. The promise of desolation is in no way connected to the 70 years, either in verse 10 or verse 12. Verse 12 states that the seventy years would end, Babylon would be called to account, and the land would be made desolate. The desolation is not connected to the end of the 70 years, just as the desolation of Judah is not connected to the beginning in v10.
For you to hypothesize that the "calling Bablyon to account" is suddenly a drawn out process that goes beyond the reign of Babylon the most indirect, illogical, ungrammatical reading.
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Well the land was not made desolate was it in 539 BCE was it? So your interpretation does not agree with the prophecy in vs.12.
Vs 10-11 are about desolation and servitude in connection with the fall in 607 BCE and the following verse which now turns its focus on Babylon after the 70 years had ended in 537 BCE would now experience judgement. Plain and simple!!!
scholarJW