Jeffro
No. It doesn't. Not even slightly. Since it was “only when the 70 years have been fulfilled [that] judgement against Babylon [would] proceed”, then the conquest of Babylon in 539 BCE necessarily follows the end of the 70 years. Which was then followed by the Jews returning to Judea.
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Yes, it does for Jeremiah does not discuss the judgement against Babylon until 25:12 through to vs 14 and Daniel does not discuss Babylon at all in ch.9 but refers to the judgement not on Babylon but on Jerusalem with its 70 years having to be fulfilled after the Fall of Babylon.
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586 is the wrong year. Hardly his best work. A notable individual advancing the wrong year only confused the issue, but the correct year is quite definitely 587 BCE.
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According to you but most scholars prefer 586 rather than 587 so you have a BIG POBLEM here
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You haven't even attempted a valid response with regard to what the passage actually says. Your interpretation requires that the Jews arrive in Judea, the 70 years end, and then attention is given to their return. It is a complete distortion of the passage. I realise it's impossible for you to provide a valid response because your entire position is wrong. But you could at least try.
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No. Plain common sense reads the verse as a prophecy that with the fulfilment of the 70 years at their Return would be the fulfilment of that original promise of restoration. There can be no other suitable explanation of this verse. My suggestion to you is to consult other translations more particular how this verse is rendered in the NWT-Reference which is more to the point.
scholar JW
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