Jeffro
You already answered your own question. 😂 “Daniel [refers] to the Seleucids … with the dramatic conflict between the 'kings of the north and the 'king of the south' in Dan.11:5-19”
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Nice try but such reasoning does not get you off the hook for Dan. 11 refers to future events involving a future battle between two kings- north and south which in verses 5-19 applies to the Seleucid period. The rest of Daniel refers to historical events in the 6th century continuing right up to our day.
The challenge for you is show evidence that all of Daniel, the entire 12 chapters refers or was written in the 2nd century.
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Also, the page you reference acknowledges that some parts of Daniel include elements from older folktales.
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Opinion, not fact!
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Whilst all the chapters of Daniel allude to the Syrian oppression under Antiochus IV Epiphanes with Babylon used as an allegory, chapters 2 and 7 to 12 make obvious references to rulers up to the Seleucid period.
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Prove it!
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The sad fact is that you actually agree that there are references to the Seleucid period (and, erroneously, beyond) throughout Daniel, but your ‘explanation’ is that Daniel was magical.
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WT publications since 1958 have always maintained that a small section of Daniel namely ch.11 describes the Seleucid Period as history by means of prophecy.
Your opinion and interpretation' is 'magical' or illusional
scholar JW