MeanMrMustard
You just said "exactly" to my statement, and then affirmed the exact opposite. Just read v12 grammatically. The 70 years ends, and then the king of Babylon is brought to account, and then sometime after its made a desolate wasteland... on and on... That doesn't change the order.
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No I simply explain the obvious to you for vs 12 clearly describes the judgement against Babylon, its King and its territory or land which judgement could only have begun after the 70 years had ended or were fulfilled which was at the release of the Exiles two years after the Fall of Babylon in 539 BCE being determined as 537 BCE. You are putting the proverbial 'cart before the horse'. You must get the timing right!!
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No, it explicitly contradicts a plain grammatical reading of the original prophecy in Jerimiah.
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Grammar whether Hebrew or English won't save you but only sound and proper exegesis will help you and that is what the said scholar relies on as a process of interpretation.
scholar JW