MeanMrMustard
No it is not a simple verse to translate for the Hebrew allows for different translations of this verse. The nations would be in servitude but we do not know what specific histories apply to these nations but only with Judah is its servitude to Babylon defined.
Babylon's account to judgement could only begin after the seventy years had been fulfilled which rules out 539 BCE so this verse 12 could only apply after the release of the Jews in 537BCE in the straits of time with the gradual desolation of the kingship, city and land as foretold also by Isaiah.
scholar