MeanMrMustard
No, the 70 years ends, then Babylon is called to account. This is the order objectively, clearly stated at Jer 25:12. And that fits with 2 Chronicles. The Bible need not contradict
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True the Bible does not contradict so one's interpretation must be in harmony with not just the context, the Bible book itself and the whole Bible. The 70 years ends with the 'calling to account of Babylon' which according to Jer. 21:12 what is clearly stated in that verse was only after the 70 years was fulfilled and not before that time. When were the 70 years fulfilled? This could only be at the Return of the Jews in 537 BCE and not at the Fall of Babylon in 539 BCE.
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The servitude was many nations to Babylon (v 10,11), and was already ongoing at the time of Jer 25 - see v18 "as they are today".
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The servitude to Babylon of a specific period of 70 years applied to Judah which also included other nations as stated in Jer. 25:11
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ou don't even need to get into contemporary sources. A grammatical reading of the text rules out WT chronology.
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Are you an expert in Hebrew and Bible translation?
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You concede WT chronology is incorrect. If "Babylon was already brought to account with the release of the Exiles" in 539, and Jer 25:12 states the seventy years end before the calling to account, then the 70 years ended 539 or before. But definitely not 537.
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I concede no such thing. Babylon's calling to account or judgement was not immediate but a process in time as verse 12 clearly explains culminating with its desolation of the land which did not happen in 539 BCE. A careful and not sloppy reading of that verse proves that the judgement against Babylon could only have begun after the Return of the Jews in 537 BCE.
scholar JW emeritus