Jeffro
Truly delusional (well, either that or blatantly dishonest). No one ever said there ‘was no exile’. You really should stop trotting out that tired misrepresentation all the time. There was no ‘70-year exile’
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Well if there was no 70 year exile then how long was your Exile?
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Entirely wrong of course. Jeremiah’s definition of Babylon’s 70 years explicitly ends with the conquest of Babylon, not an end of exile, and Jeremiah also directly states that exile was a punishment for refusing to serve Babylon during Babylon’s 70 years. But you can keep lying to yourself. See also ‘sunk cost fallacy’.
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False. Jeremiah's 70 years explicitly end with the Return of the Jews and not with the Fall of Babylon as proved by Ezra the historian in his closing words of 2 Chronicles and opening words of Ezra. The 70-year period was one of an Exile for it is during that period met all of the requirements of an Exile period namely an invasion by a foreign power-subjugation of land and populace and deportation for starters. The Exile thus served as punishment or an expression of judgment upon Judah.
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If you think a period of 6 months for a 4-month journey is fast, it does explain a lot about your gullibility.
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Gullibility is on your shoulders if you think that only a four-month journey was the only part of their Return.
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Hyperbole is a frequent element of the genre. Also, the texts were edited after their initial writing, well into the Persian period. No superstition required. But even taken at face value, the context of Jeremiah 29 is several years before Jerusalem’s destruction but after the exile had begun, so it obviously didn’t refer to 70 years starting from an unspecified future event.
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Hyperbole or figurative language is part of prophetic genre but its presence does not negate history which nicely coexists with prophecy. Jer. 29 was addressed to the Exiles in Babylon with words of comfort concerning their future release from Exile but the time of its writing is unknown but was written during the time of Zedekiah's reign.
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But that’s by no means the only part that’s still inhabited of course.
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Not so for the exact land of Chaldea or Shinar no longer exists as a territory along with its cities at that time.
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Actually it’s basic arithmetic. 🤦♂️ History finds a specific significant event in 609BCE right where it’s expected.
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You need more than arithmetic but a precise historical event which you cannot nominate but simply a fuzzy assertion about the end of the Assyrian World Power which cannoty be precisely determined.
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Notice how the apologist contradicts himself by first fallaciously claiming I said something not supported by Jonsson (as if that would matter), and then asserting that Jonsson is my mentor. 🤦♂️
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You do not have to agree with COJ on every point to have been influenced by his thesis.
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Stern's description of Judah as being unsettled is consistent with a description of the land as desolation even to the smallest degree even without an inhabitant.
scholar JW