Earnest,
The obvious reason why you didn't comment on the creation dilemma is because you have no explanation on how these scriptures can be in complete harmony with your belief system, because the reality is that these scriptures are in complete contradiction with your belief system. The only explanation that makes sense is that Jesus has deity, therefore, for you to consider the NWT as a valid translation is baseless, as it has been altered to fit JW theology that Jesus doesn't have deity. You cannot selectively choose scripture that adheres to your beliefs, but ignore others that are in direct conflict with those beliefs. This however, is what the NWT committee has done, yet you still expect us to believe the NWT is a reliable, accurate translation, when you clearly have failed to show why it is so. It certainly is not based on what the actual Greek text says in the scriptures mentioned in this thread.
You say you have no argument that deity in Jesus is the only way these scriptures can be in harmony. If you truly believe that, then why do you subscribe to the accuracy of a translation that is a complete 180 degrees from that belief?
Again, your explanation for ho theos is irrelevant, for it does nothing to recognize the creation dilemma. You either take the entire Bible to be inspired, or none of it. I choose to take it as inspired, and therefore I prefer to base my belief system on what the Bible says, rather then altering the Bible to fit my belief system based on a presumption of what the original author actually meant.
The bottom line is 99% of the population is not going to reference the original Greek to see whether an indefinite or definite article exists. Therefore, I truly believe any translation that closely conveys what the original Greek text actually says proves to be the most reliable for accurate knowledge to be gained by means of the Holy Spirit, and the more translations that are consistent in conveying this also lends credence to being reliable, rather than an isolated rogue translation here and there that is completely altered from the majority, based on one Greek grammar scholars assumptions of what the author was trying to say. As an example, in the case of John 1:1, I have seen considerably more testimony from scholars that state there is no basis for the indefinite article as the NWT portrays it, compared to the few that say there is a basis for it.
It is obvious you are set in your ways, and no matter how much logical reasoning you are presented with, it appears it will not make much difference.