The Greek Theology list deals mostly with Biblical Greek. While I do not agree that there are "50 errors" (of what? Grammar? Translation? Theology?) in the Hebrew Scriptures of the NWT, it would help if you state specifically what you are looking for.
accuracy
JoinedPosts by accuracy
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15
Hebrews and Greek Scripture NWT
by Kophagangelos ini would know more to check the hebrews scripture of nwt.
and i have found also 50 errors in the greek scripure of nwt.
i need more scripure - about 100 hebrews and 100 greek scriputres.
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SEMINAR ON BIBLICAL GREEK Taught by Dr. Firpo Carr
by VM44 inwhile surfing the net, i came upon this annoucement.. a seminar on biblical greek to be taught by dr. firpo carr!!!.
who wants to sign up?.
< http://www.stirinc.org/seminar.htm.
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accuracy
Sibboleth, shibboleth! Yerusalyim, if your name is supposed to be the Hebrew for "Jerusalem," someone also replaced your shin with a sin (talking about Hebrew letters here, not body parts or their actions). The correct form is "yerushalayim." Which is dual, not just plural. Are there two of you?
Or does your name not mean "Jerusalem"?
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156
Biblical PROOF that Jesus Christ IS GOD
by Bibleboy inbefore i get started, my name is mark whitmore, 20, i live in vancouver, canada, and i am a follower of the way, a true christian, not a jw.
if you reply, please post who you are, how old and what you believe so that i know where you are coming from.
thanks.. now down to business.. strongs' hebrew and greek online:.
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accuracy
For the past 1,700 years philosophers masquerading as biblical Greek theologians have attempted to deny the central truth of the Bible that Jesus is the Son of God, not "God the Son." During that time such "theologians" have used all manner of obtuse arguments and circuitous "proofs" and invented concepts, in an attempt to override the simple and clear message of the New Testament: Jesus, as the Son of God, is subordinate to his Father, not equal to Him. As on earth, so in heaven, and so for eternity. The verses which demonstrate this are so well-known that I will not quote them here. But they can stand on their own. They are the Word of God, which I much prefer to the idle cogitations of man.
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Biblical PROOF that Jesus Christ IS GOD
by Bibleboy inbefore i get started, my name is mark whitmore, 20, i live in vancouver, canada, and i am a follower of the way, a true christian, not a jw.
if you reply, please post who you are, how old and what you believe so that i know where you are coming from.
thanks.. now down to business.. strongs' hebrew and greek online:.
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accuracy
Additionally, if John had wanted to say that Jesus was the same as the God he was "with," (John 1:1a), he would not have said , as he did, KAI QEOS HN hO LOGOS. Rather, he would have to say (as he did not), KAI hO QEOS HN hO LOGOS. (Dr. William Barclay, "Many Witnesses, One Lord," page 23) By leaving the second QEOS ("Theos") anarthrous, John was saying either that the Logos was a divine being or "god," or that the Logos has the character and attributes of God or, as Dr. Barclay puts it, "The Word was in the same class as God, belonged to the same order of being as God." (op. cit., page 23)
Just a note, the late Dr. Barclay was a New Testament expositor well recognized in Evangelical and conservative circles, and not one of Jehovah's Witnesses.
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156
Biblical PROOF that Jesus Christ IS GOD
by Bibleboy inbefore i get started, my name is mark whitmore, 20, i live in vancouver, canada, and i am a follower of the way, a true christian, not a jw.
if you reply, please post who you are, how old and what you believe so that i know where you are coming from.
thanks.. now down to business.. strongs' hebrew and greek online:.
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accuracy
Any number of wannabe grammarians have tried to say that the "was" of John 1:1 (Greek, HN, "en," in the indicative imperfect active tense) implies the Word's "eternal" existence, but it doesn't wash. If HN means "eternal" existence at John 1:1, it has to mean the same thing everywhere else it is used, which makes for monstrosities. For example, when John 1:10 states that, after becoming a man, Jesus "was [Greek, HN] in the world...but the world did not know him," does it mean that Jesus "was eternally" in the world? Of course not! He was "in the world" for only 33 1/2 years! Verbs in the imperfect indicative active tense simply represent "an action as going on in past time...this action may be simultaneous, prolonged, descriptive, repeated, customary, interrupted, attempted, or BEGUN." (William Davis, Grammar of the Greek New Testament, p. 41, my emphasis) The verb HN, in and of itself, does not indicate how long the Word existed, nor does it say that he existed forever.
And this is just one instance of the tortured exegesis and misuse of grammar that must be employed in order to support the trinity. It would be far better to just let the Greek text speak for itself, rather than trying to force out of it what is not there.
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156
Biblical PROOF that Jesus Christ IS GOD
by Bibleboy inbefore i get started, my name is mark whitmore, 20, i live in vancouver, canada, and i am a follower of the way, a true christian, not a jw.
if you reply, please post who you are, how old and what you believe so that i know where you are coming from.
thanks.. now down to business.. strongs' hebrew and greek online:.
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accuracy
Before you go spouting off about what the NWT has added or left out, you might check all the italicized words in the King James Version. There are hundreds of them. They ALL represent ADDITIONS to the English text to make sense in translating from the Hebrew text. Then, there are things that the King James Version adds that were never in the original Bible text to begin with, such as 1 John 5:7. Check it out, 1 John 5:7 is an addition to the Bible for which there is absolutely no ancient textual evidence!!!
My only question to those who say Jesus was/is God, is the following:
Why then does Jesus have a God? (John 20:17; Revelation 3:12) Nowhere does the Father say He has a God over Him. But the Revelation verse shows that even in heaven, Jesus has a God. Not much equality there, is it?
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Was Russell a freemason ? Part one: His writings
by chasson inthe debate which divided and which still divides the small world of the former jehovah's witnesses on the french internet, is about to know if the founder of the jehovah's witnesses, namely charles taze russell was a mason.
having been an actor of this debate, it seemed to me convenient of summary my ideas in writing to take advantage of it the readers of this site.. .
russell took his ideas from the american second adventism.
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accuracy
These attempts to make Russell a Freemason are laughable. He wasn't, but so what if he were? I was a Freemason, and haven't taken over the world yet, LOL!!! The Craft bases many of its myths and legends and teaching symbols on the Bible, but certainly not the Bible exclusively. The "secret word" of Masonry is a mixture of biblical, Egyptian, and Canaanite morphology. Modern Freemasonry began in Europe essentially as a social drinking club, and some may say that it remains exactly that. Knights Templar symbols were also assismilated, and no doubt there was some historical amalgamation between the old Craft guilds of Europe and the Templars.
But none of this is as sinister as people try to make it out to be.
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Accuracy of Bible Translation
by ruffian ini am trying to find out more on the translators of the jw's bible.
they claim and so it claims in the front of their bible that it was translated by experts in greek and hebrew.
what training if any did these people actually have in these ancient languages.
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accuracy
ruffian, are you one of the three that accosted my master Hiram Abiff?
There is so much error bandied about in this thread that it is pathetic. Only "scholar" has his information primarily correct.
If you want to get some accurate information, read the relevant sections on the NWT in Greg Stafford's "Jehovah's Witnesses Defended" or Hebrew professor and scholar Rolf Furuli's "The Role of Theology and Bias in Bible Translation."
Translation is not an exact science, and every translation has its weak points. But the NWT is better than many.
Just a question to those who say the name "Jehovah" has no place in the NT: How about those places where the writers quoted from the Hebrew scriptures, which did contain the name?
And, if use of the name "Jehovah" is "proof" of JW bias, how about the other, non-Witness versions which use or have used the name in the NT, from the 16th century on, and the many Hebrew translations which use it in the NT? None of these people were Jehovah's Witnesses.
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El & Yahweh
by SharonUT inwho do jehovah's witnesses say they are?
do they say they are both jehovah?
also, is the new world translation bible on-line to look at?
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accuracy
Yes, Francoise, that is the sort of popular "evolutionary" concept of God provided by books such as Karen Armstrong's "A History of God." But in the Bible, El, Elohim, El Elyon, and El Shaddai are all just titles of the One God who is named YHWH. And it would be more accurate to say that "Jehovah" is the form of the name YHWH that was picked up by English Bible translators from the work of Latin scholars from the 13th century, where it first appeared as Iehouah and Jehouah, in Raymund Martin's "Pugeo Fidei."
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Coming vs. Presence
by SharonUT inas i have studied the kjv, matthew 24:3 uses the word "coming" in the same way matthew 21:5 does.
matthew 24:3: "and as he sat upon the mount of olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, tell us, when shall these things be?
and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
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accuracy
A good Greek lexicon would be helpful. For starters, Matthew does not use the same Greek word for "coming/cometh" at 21:5 as he does at 24:3. Matthew 24:3 uses a different word, "parousia," which another Bible writer contrasts with "absence" (Greek: apousia) at Philippians 2:12, indicating that "presence" is a legit translation for "parousia." However, a good Greek lexicon would also give you the range of meanings of this word in the first century A.D.
The Greek word used at Matthew 21:5, on the other hand, is a form of "erchomai," which is the usual word for "come" or "appear."