Your reference in Ruth is not an example of the same expression.
Citation, please. Remember, there is no direct translation between Hebrew and Greek, so any citation will need expertise in translation between those languages.
they said as a fact, "a son has been born to Naomi" they did not call the boy, "Obed son of Naomi"
Indeed, just as they spoke of Jesus being the son of Mary, Obed was spoken of as being Naomi's son. Any disagreement with this obvious similarity will require you to provide a citation by an expert in translating both Biblical Hebrew and Greek.
However the proper expression x son of x was always when a male like this, "Jesus son of Joseph" or "Yeshua ben-Yosef". I assume you can see the distinction here.
Citation, please, on that being the proper reference. Whoever you cite will need to be an expert in both Hebrew and Greek since the NT was written in Greek and the OT in Hebrew.
Thus the biblical reference you provided doesn't even apply. As to my scholarly references asserting this custom, I listed them in the other thread:
Proper citation requires both a page number and paragraph (as well as edition, in fact). Properly cite your references, please, otherwise it's obvious you're not being serious.
As to your Lukan reference, we are discussing mark. Thus it has no baring. Unlike mark, Luke includes a birth account. It is a separate subject.
We are discussing Jesus, therefore it does. You seem to only want to use scripture that supports your positions then ignore those that don't. Sorry, no cherry picking. You don't get to claim "Jesus was called son of Mary" without also realizing he was also called son of Joseph. In fact, his two genealogies were through Joseph, not Mary.